2019 UPPSC Pre Solved question Papers | Static Questions Only

 1. Central Institute of Indian Language is located at which of the following places?

a) Varanasi

b) Mysore

c) New Delhi

d) Shimla


Answer. b;

  • Central Institute of Indian Language is located in Mysore. It was founded in 1969 to protect minority and tribal languages.
  • Central High Tibetan Education Institute: Varanasi.
  • Cultural Institute and Training Center: New Delhi


2. India aims to achieve land degradation neutrality by the year

a) 2025

b) 2030

c) 2035

d) 2040


Answer. b;

  • India aims to achieve land degradation neutrality by the year 2030. India will restore 26 million hectares of land by 2030. 
  • Indian hosted the 14th COP summit of the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) in 2019.



3. Which of the following organisms has white blood?

a) Lizard

b) Cockroach

c) House bug

d) Mosquito


Answer; b;

  • Cockroach organism has white blood because it lacking hemoglobin


4. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria make the combination with cells of roots of

a) Pulses

b) Rice

c) Wheat

d) Sugarcane


Answer; a;

  • Nitrogen-fixing bacteria make the combination with cells of roots of Pulses.
  • Plants take Nitrogen in form of Ammonia, Nitrate, and nitrites only. Microorganisms with symbiosis relationship with pulses' root can abe to fix the free nitrogen of atmosphere to ammonia, nitrate, nitrites form.


5. What happens when some charge is placed on a soap bubble?

a) Its radius increase

b) Its radius decrease

c) The bubble collapses

d) None of the above


Answer. a;

  • When the charge is placed on a soap bubble, its radius increase. 
  • All part of the soap bubble has some charge when some charge is placed on the soap bubble it repels the other part of the surface, as a result, it increases the size.


6. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

a) Oxytocin            Hormone

b) Aspartame        Synthetic Sweetener

c) Neoprene        Specialized rubber

d) Rayon            Modified starch


Answer. d;

  • Rayon is the first man-made artificial fiber and it is used to substitute for silk.
  • Oxytocin is a hormone that releases breastmilk and it helps to move sperms in males. 
  • Aspartame: 200 times more sweeter than sucrose.
  • Neoprene is the first synthetic rubber.


7. Which of the following substances is not a protein?

a) Cotton

b) Hair

c) Spider Silk

d) Hoof


Answer. a;

Cotton is not a protein.



8. A liquid remains hot or cold for a long time in a thermos flask because there is no loss or gain of heat by:

a) Conduction

b) Convection and radiation

c) Both a and b

d) None of the above


Answer. c;

  • A liquid remains hot or cold for a long time in a thermos flask because there is no loss or gain of heat by conduction, convection, and radiation.
  • Thermos flask was invented in 1892 by James Dewar.


9. Which of the following glands in the human body acts both as endocrine glands as well as and exocrine glands?

a) Adrenal gland

b) Lacrimal gland

c) Pancreas

d) Thyroid


Answer. d;

  • The pancreas and Liver glands in the human body act both as endocrine glands as well as and exocrine glands.
  • Exocrine glands have ducts and enzymes pass through them. For example, lactic glands.
  • Endocrine glands are ductless and they secrete hormones. For example, Thyroid glands.


10. Which of the following materials contains calcium?

a) China clay

b) Corundum

c) Gypsum

d) Talc


Answer. c;

Gypsum is also called Calcium sulfate dihydrate and it contains calcium.


11. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

        (Substance)                (Use)

a) Silver bromide            artificial photosynthesis

b) Silver iodine                artificial rain

c) Lithium bicarbonate     treatment of rheumatism

d) Milk of Magnesia        antacid


Answer. a;

  • Artificial photosynthesis is also called photocatalysis and Photographic emulsion is manufactured by silver bromide.



12. Tulsi plant has medicinal values due to the presence of the following

a) Inorganic acid

b) Organic Acid

c) Phenols and Flavonoids

d) None of the above


Answer. c;

  • Tulsi plant has medicinal values due to the presence of Phenols and Flavonoids. Tulsi plants are able to cure viral, bacterial, and fungi-infected diseases.



13. What is true about the ecosystem?

a) Primary consumers are least dependent upon the producer

b) Primary consumers are out-number producers

c) Producers are more than primary consumers

d) Secondary consumers are the largest and most powerful


Answer: c;

  • Producers are more than primary consumers in the ecosystem and it is needed for the stability of energy flow.



14. With reference to Eutrophication, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a phenomenon of nutrient enrichment of the water body.

2. It depletes dissolved oxygen of the water.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2 only

d) Neither 1 nor 2


Answer. c;

  • Harmful algae boom, death of aquatic animals, or dead zone creation is a result of Eutrophication. Eutrophication is caused by nutrient enrichment of the water body which depletes dissolved oxygen of water.


15. The environment modified by human activities is called

a) Natural environment

b) Anthropogenic environment

c) Urban environment

d) Modern environment


Answer: b;

  • The anthropogenic environment is a modified version of the environment by human activities.


16. Which of the following statement is NOT true?

a) Species diversity increases from the equator towards poles

b) Tropics harbor more species than temperate areas.

c) Greatest biodiversity occurs in the Amazonian rainforest.

d) Species diversity decreases from temperate areas toward poles


Answer: a;

  • Species diversity[plant and animal] decreases from the equator towards the poles.


17. Which one of the following is the well-known example of a bioindicator of air pollution?

a) Lichens

b) Methyl Mercury

c) Rose plant

d) Sunflower


Answer: a;

  • Lichens are a well-known example of a bioindicator of air pollution as it takes most of the nutrients from the atmosphere.


18. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

a) Desalination              Sea Water

b) Reverse Osmosis      Potable Water

c) Denaturation             Proteins

d) Pasteurisation            Tea


Answer: d.

Pasteurization is also called the "High-Temperature Short time process" as it is used to conserve milk for a longer duration by heating (for 25 seconds) and quickly cooling.



19. Which of the following is an example of herbicide?

a) Sodium chlorate

b) Potassium permanganate

c) Bleaching powder

d) None of the above


Answer: a;

  • Sodium chlorate is an example of an Herbicide as it reduces the growth of weeds.


20. The gas, which is emitted in the paddy fields and increases the earth's temperature is:

a) Nitrogen

b) Carbon dioxide

c) Carbon monoxide

d) Methane


Answer; d;

  • Methane is 21 times more potent than the Co2 greenhouse gas.


21. At which of the following places is the Secretariat of the International Solar Alliance(I.S.A) located at present?

a) Paris

b) New Delhi

c) Gurugram

d) New York


Answer: C;

  • The Secretariat of the International Solar Alliance(I.S.A) located at present is in Gurugram. 
  • Founded: In January 2016.


22. The first union territory of India to run 100 percent on solar energy is

a) Andaman Nicobar

b) Chandigarh

c) Diu

d) Puducherry


Answer: C;

  • Diu is the first union territory of India to run 100 percent on solar energy.


23. Multidensional poverty Index includes:

i. Health

ii. Education

iii. Living Standard

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

codes:

a) Only i is correct

b) Only ii and iii are correct

c) Only i and ii are correct

d) I, ii, and iii are correct


Answer: d;

  • The multidimensional Poverty Index was launched by UNDP and it has three dimensions and 10 indicators. Three dimensions are Health, education, and Living standard. 

24. Arrange the following events in chronological order of their commencement and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

i. Wild Life (Protection) Act

ii. Biological Diversity Act

iii. Project Tiger

iv. Project Elephant

    Codes:

a) i,ii,iii,iv

b) i,iii,iv,ii

c) ii,iii,iv,i

d) ii,iii,i,iv


Answer: b;

  • Wild life( Protection) Act: 1972;
  • Projetc Tiger: 1973
  • Project Elephant: 1992
  • Biological Diversity Act: 2002


25. The Environmental Kuznets Curve(EKC) shows the relationship between per capita GDP and environmental loss. What is the shape of the environmental Kuznets Curve?

a) Inverted "U" shaped

b) Inverted "V" shaped

c) Inverted "L" shaped

d) None of these


Answer. a;

  • It is inverted "U" shaped. Kuznets curves explain the relationship between per capita income and environmental loss. As per the curve, at a certain level of increase in per capita income, environmental losses get minimized.

26. With reference to the measure of Tenancy Reform in India, which of the statements is/are correct?

1. Regulation of rent

2. Security of tenure

3. Confirment of ownership of tenants

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1,2, and 3 only


Answer. d;

  • Regulation of rent: Fair rent was fixed.
  • Security of tenure: Land could be resumed to the owner only for personal cultivation.


27. In the Suez canal region, the correct order of lakes lying from North to South direction is

a) Lake Timsah-Little Bitter Lake-Great Bitter Lake-Lake Manzala

b) Great Bitter Lake-Little Bitter Lake-Lake Timsah-Lake Manzala

c) Lake Manzala-Great Bitter Lake-Little Bitter Lake-Lake Timsah

d) Lake Manzala-Lake Timsah-Great Bitter lake-Little Bitter Lake


Answer. d;


28. Telegraphic Plateau is part of

a) North Atlantic Ridge

b) South Atlantic Ridge

c) Indian Ocean Ridge

d) None of these


Answer. a;

  • Telegraphic Plateau is part of North Atlantic Ridge. It is like a plateau structure.


29. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

     List-I                                                            List-II

(Different Name of the tropical cyclone)            (Country)

A. Willy-Willies                                        1. Philippines

B. Taifu                                                    2. Austalia

C. Baguio                                                3. Japna

D. Hurricanes                                        4. U.S.A

Codes:

        A    B    C    D

a)    3    4    1    2

b)    2    3    4    1

c)    1    3    2    4

d)    2    3    1    4


Answer. d;

  • Willy-Willies: Australia.
  • Taifu: Japan
  • Baguio: Philippines
  • Hurricanes: U.S.A.


30. Which one of the following cities is NOT located on the Trans-Siberian rail route?

a) Kazan

b) Omsk

c) Sochi

d) Chita


Answer. c;

  • The Trans-Siberian rail route is the longest rail route[ 9289 km] in the world and it connects Moscow to Vladivostok.


31. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

        (Wind)                    (Country)

a)    Santa Ana            California

b)    Haboob                Sudan

c)     Yamo                    Japan

d)     Mistral                Australia


Answer. d;

  • Santa Ana is the warm winds of California, U.S.A.
  • Khamshim Haboob is the warm winds of North-Eastern Africa; Somalia, Sudan, etc.
  • Yamo winds bow in Japan.
  • Mistral is the cold winds of central Europe, not Australia.


32. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

        List-I                        List-II

    (Coal Fields)            (Located)

A. Talcher                    1. Damodar Valley

B. Karnapura                2. Son Valley

C. Singrauli                    3. Godavari Valley

D. Singreni                    4. Mahanadi Valley

Codes:

        A    B    C    D

a)     4    1    2    3

b)    3    2    1    4

c)    2    4    3    1

d)    1    3    2    4


Answer.  a;

Talcher: Odisha

Karnapura: Jharkhand

Singrauli: MP and UP

Singreni: Telangana


33. Which one of the following peaks is NOT located in India?

a) Gurla Mandhata

b) Namcha Barwa

c) Kamet

d) Nanga Parvat


Answer. a;

  • Gurla Mandhata is in Tibet, near Mansarovar lake and it is part of the Himalayas.
  • Namcha Barwa: Arunachal Pradesh
  • Kamet: Uttarakhand. Chamoli district.
  • Nanga Parvat: Gilgit-Baltistan( Controlled by Pakistan), Ladakh.


34. The winter rains caused by a Western disturbance in the North-Western Plain of India gradually decrease from:

a) East to West

b) West to East

c) North to South

d) South to North


Answer; b;

  • The winter rains caused by a Western disturbance in the North-Western Plain of India gradually decrease from West to east and it is a boon for Rabi crops.



35. In which of the following rivers, the upper course contains freshwater but saline water flowing at the lower part?

a) Barak River

b) Luni river

c) Ghaggar river

d) None of the above


Answer; b;

  • the upper course contains freshwater but saline water flowing at the lower part of the Luni river[Rajasthan].

36. "Moribund Delta" is a subdivision of which of the following Delta?

a) Krishna-Godawari Delta

b) Mahanadi Delta

c) Bengal Delta

d) Cauvery Delta


Answer. c; Bengal Delta.

  • Bengal delta is divided into four parts:
  • Moribund Delta
  • Active Dela
  • Mature
  • Immature Delta


37. Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion(A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion(A): Sugarcane and sugar production in UP is more than in Maharashtra but productivity is less.

Reason(R): Most of the sugar factories in Maharashtra are in the cooperative sector.

Codes:

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false.

d) A is false but R is true.


Answer. B;



38. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

a) Dam            Copper coin

b) Desai:          Revenue collector

c) Diwan:        Revenue chief of a Province

d) Jarib:            A type of tax


Answer.d;

  • The dam was a copper coin introduced by Sher Shah Suri.
  • Desai was the title given to revenue collectors during Maratha Empire.
  • Diwan was the finance chief of provinces.
  • Jarib was the traditional unit of land measurement.


39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

        List-I                    List-II

A. Mulla Daud            1. Chandayan

B. Damodar Kavi        2. Ashiqa

C. Somnath                3. Padmavati Katha

D. Amir Khusro         4. Rag Vibodh

Codes:

    A    B    C    D

a) 1    3    1    4

b)    1    3    4    2

c)    2    4    1    3

d)    1    2    3    4


Answer. b;

  • Chandayan( Love story); Written by Sufi Poet Mulla Daud.
  • Padmavati Kath was written by Damodar Kavi.
  • Rag Vibodh was written by Somnath, Telgu Bramin.
  • Amir Khsro wrote Ashiqa.



40. Who among the following Kings had given patronage to Tansen before Akbar?

a) Raja Ramchandra Singh of Bhata

b) Rajbahadur of Malwa

c) Uday Singh of Mewar

d) Muzaffar Shah of Gujarat


Answer. a;

  • Tansen spent most of his life in the court of Raja Ramchandra Singh

41.  Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:

        List-I                            List-II

    (Ruling Dynastics)        (Capital)

A. Pallava                        1. Warangal

B. Pandya                        2. Kanchi

C. Yadava                        3. Madurai

D.Kaktiya                        4. Devagiri

    Codes:    

        A    B    C    D

a)    2    1    4    3

b)    2    3    4    1

c)    1    2    3    4

d)    2    4    3    1


Answer: b;

  • Pallava: Kanchivaram
  • Pandeya: Madurai
  • Yadava: Devagiri( Daulta Bad and Nashik)
  • Kaktiya: Warangal 

    • 42. Arrange the following monuments in chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

      I. Rabia Daurani's Tomb, Aurangabad

      II. Shershah Suri's Tomb, Sasaram

      III. Humayun's Tomb, Delhi

      IV. Atala Mosque, Jaunpur

      Codes:

      a) I, II, IV, III

      b) IV, II, III, I

      c) II, I, III, IV

      d) III, IV, II, I


      Answer. b;

      • Atala Mosque, Jaunpur: 1408 AD, built by Ibrahim  Shah Sharqi.
      • Sher Shah Suri's Tomb: 1540
      • Humayun's Tomb: 1770
      • Rabia Daurani's Tomb: 1678.


      43. With reference to the Mansabdar System, which of the statements is/are correct?

      1. Mansabdari system was the official nobility of the state, started by Akbar.

      2. A Mansabdari was hereditary

      Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

      Codes:

      a) 1 only

      b) Both 1 and 2

      c) 2 only

      d) Neither 1 nor 2


      Answer: a;

      • Mansabdari System was the official nobility of the state and it had been started by Akbar. The literal meaning of Mansab is rank or post.
      • Every civil or military person has been given a Mansab. It varies from 10 to 50,000.


      44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:

                  List-I                        List-II

      A. Treaty of Allahabad         1. 1782

      B. Treaty of Mangalore        2. 1784

      C. Treaty of Salbai                3. 1769

      D. Treaty of Madras              4. 1765

      Codes:

              A    B    C    D

      a)    4    2    3    1

      b)    2    4    3    1

      c)    4    2    1    3
      d)    2    4    1    3


      Answer.  C;

      • Treaty of Allahabad: 1765; between Emperor Shah Alam II and Robert Clive. Battle of Buxer.
      • Treaty of Madras:1769 between Mysore and East India Company.
      • Treaty of Salbai: 1782; Ended with the first Angolo-Maratha war.
      • Treaty of Mangalore: 1784: between Tipu Sultan and East India Company.


      45. Arrange the following events in chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

      I. Poona Pact

      II. Gandhi-Irvin Agreement

      III. Cripps Mission

      IV. Civil Disobedience Movement

      Codes:

      a) IV, II, III, I

      b) II, IV, I, III

      c) IV, II, I, III

      d) III, I, IV, II


      Answer.  C

      • Civil Disobedience Movement: 1930 by breaking Salt law.
      • 1931: Gandhi-Irvin Agreement or Delhi Pact, Congress members freed from JAIL.
      • Poona pack: 1932; between Gandhi and Ambedkar.
      • Cripps Mission: 1942; Get cooperation in the second world war.


      46. With reference to the civil administration in 1905, which of the statements is/are correct?

      1. Lord Curzon decided to rearrange the provincial boundaries.

      2. A new province was constituted, called East Bengal and Assam.

      Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

      a) 1 only

      b) Both 1 and 2

      c) 2 Only

      d) Neither 1 nor 2


      Answer. b;

      • Bengal was bifurcated on 16 October 1905 during Lord Curzon's time. New provinces were created, called East Bengal and Assam.


      47. Who prepared the "C.R Formula" to remove the political deadlock between Muslim League and Indian National Congress?

      a) Jawaharlal Nehru

      b) Rajgopalachari

      c) Chittaranjan Das

      d) V.P Menon


      Answer. b;



      48. "The rise and growth of Economic Nationalism in India" were written by:

      a) Partha Sarthi Gupta

      b) S. Gopal

      c) B.R. Nanda

      d) Bipin Chandra


      Answer. d;


      48. In which of the following "the provisions for the protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife" are found in the constitution of India?

      a) Only in the Directive Principles of State Policy

      b) Only in the Fundamental duties

      c) Both a and b

      d) None of the above


      Answer. c;

      • Article 48 A and 51 A has provisions for the protection and improvement of the environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife.

      49. With reference to Panchayats which of the statements is/are correct?

      1. Fifty percent of seats shall be reserved for the women of SC/ST categories.

      2. Gram Sabha is a body consisting of all persons living in the village.

      3. There will be a Panchayat at the intermediate level.

      Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

      Codes:

      a) 1 only

      b) 2 and3 

      c) Both 1 and 2

      d) 3 only


      Answer. d; 3 Only

      • one there are reserved for women of SC/ST community in all Panchayat level.
      • Gram Sabha is a body consisting of all registered voters living in the village.
      • Rajasthan was the first state to adopt the Panchayat system in 1959.
      • 73 CAA in 1992 enabled the Panchayat raj system in all states.


      50. Who said, "India is Quasi federal state"?

      a) Lord Bryce

      b) Iver Jannings

      c) H.J Lasix

      d) K.C Wheare


      Answer. d;

      • K.C Where said India is a quasi-Federal state.
      • Marris Jones said India is "bargaining federalism".
      • Iver Jannings said" far too large and therefore far too rigid".


      51. Arrange the following events in chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

      I. Maharaja Hari Singh signed the Instrument of Accession.

      II. Constitution of India was enforced,

      III. Accession to India ratified by the sovereign constituent assembly of Jammu and Kashmir.

      IV. New Constitution of state and Jammu and Kashmir came into force.

      Codes:

      a) I, III, IV, II

      b) III, IV, I, II

      c) I, II, III, IV

      d) IV, III, II, I


      Answer. c;

      • Maharaja Hari Singh signed the Instrument of Accession on 26 October 1947.
      • The Constitution of India was enforced on 26 January 1950.
      • Accession to India was ratified by the sovereign constituent assembly of Jammu and Kashmir on 15 February 1954.
      • The New Constitution of state and Jammu and Kashmir came into force on 26 January 1957.


      52. Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

      Assertion(A): The supreme court of India has exclusive jurisdiction regarding the constitutional validity of central laws.

      Reason(R): The supreme court is the Guardian of the Indian Constitution.

      Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

      Codes:

      a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

      b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

      c) A is true but R is false.

      d) A is false but R is true.


      Answer. a;


      53. National Panchayati Raj Day in India is celebrated on

      a) 26 January

      b) 2 October

      c) 21 April

      d) 24 April


      Answer. d;

      National Panchayati Raj Day in India is celebrated on 24 April.


      54. Which of the following Article was inserted by the 42nd Constitution Amendment to provide for the participation of workers in Management?

      a) Article 38

      b)Article 39A

      c)Article 45

      d) Article 43A


      Answer. d;

       Article 43 A was inserted by the 42nd Constitution Amendment to provide for the participation of workers in Management.


      55. What is the legal nature of the Preamble of the constitution?

      a) It is enforceable

      b) It is not enforceable

      c) It may be enforced in special circumstances.

      d) None of above


      Answer. b;

      The preamble of the constitution is not enforceable.


      56. Which of the following is correct about the heading of Article 162 of the constitution of India?

      a) Executive power of the state

      b) Conditions of Governor's office

      c) Term of the office of Governor

      d) Extension of executive Power of the state


      Answer. d;


      57. Which of the following temples is also known as Khajuraho of Vidarbha?

      a) Markandeshwar

      b) Kailash

      c) Manudevi

      d) Bhimasbankar


      Answer. a;

      • Markandeshwar temples are also known as Khajuraho of Vidarbha. It is located on the bank of the Wainganga river. It is the Gadchiroli district of Maharashtra.


      58. Use of polished rice in the human diet causes the following disease.

      a) Beriberi

      b) Goitre

      c) Night Blindness

      d) Colour Blindness


      Answer. a;

      • Vitamin B and other vitamins and minerals are present in the outer part of rice, when it is polished or wash, it gets washed. Eating polished rice causes the Beriberi disease.


      59. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

          (Vitamin)                (Rich Source)

      a) Vitamin B6            Rice bran

      b) Vitamin B2        Cod-liver oil

      c) Vitamin E        Wheat germ oil

      d) Vitamin K         Alfalfa


      Answer.  b;

      Vitamin B2 is found in a variety of food and leafy vegetable.



      60. Given below are two statements, one labeled as Assertion A and the other as Reason R.

      Assertion(A): Most of the vitamins are not synthesized in the human body.

      Reason(R): Human organs synthesize only essential micronutrients.

      Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

      Codes:

      a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

      b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

      c) A is true but R is false.

      d) A is false but R is true.


      Answer. c;

      • Vitamins are very essential for the overall health of humans.


      61. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:

              List-I                List-II

      A. Kevlar                1. Explosive

      B. Taxol                  2. Synthetic fiber

      C. Zink Phosphide  3. Anticancer drug

      D. Nitrocellulose      4. Rodenticide

      Codes:

              A    B    C    D

      a)    2    4    3    1

      b)    2    3    4    1

      c)    4    3    1    2

      d)    3    1    2    4


      Answer. b

      • Kevlar: Synthetic fiber; heat resistant fiber.
      • Taxol: Anticancer drug
      • Zink phosphide: Rodenticide
      • Nitrocellulose: Explosive; used in the rocket.


      62. A sample of any of the following substances disappears after sometimes when exposed to the air like camphor, naphthalene, or dry ice. This phenomenon is called:

      a) Sublimation 

      b) Evaporation

      c) Diffusion

      d) Radiation


      Answer. a;

      Sublimation: solid to air directly.


      63. The phenomenon used in optical fiber for transmission of light energy is:

      a) Total internal reflection

      b) Diffraction

      c) Scattering

      d) Refraction


      Answer: a; Total internal reflection.


      64. Which of the following statements about enzymes is/are correct?

      1. They are biocatalysts.

      2. They perform their action on the site where they are produced.

      Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

      Codes:

      a) 1 only

      b) 2 only

      c) Both 1 and 2

      d) Neither 1 nor 2


      Answer. c;

      Enzymes are biocatalysts and also protein and they increase the chemical reaction by lowering the activation energy. 


      65. Mother's milk provides an almost complete diet to the newborn, but it lacks the following:

      a) Iron

      b) Calcium

      c) Magnesium

      d) Potassium


      Answer. a;

      • Mother milk lack Iron.
      • Mother milk provides antibodies to a baby that help the baby to fight viruses and bacteria.


      66. Arrange the following substances in chronological order of their first synthesis in a lab:

      1. Black gold

      2. Fullerene

      3. Graphene

      4. Kevlar

      Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

      Codes:

      a) 1    2    3    4

      b)  4    2    3    1

      c)   2    4    3    1

      d)   4    1    2    3



      Answer. b;

      Black gold: Petroleum.


      67. Bibliometry is :

      a) Function of Library network

      b) Information Management Service

      c) Information Management Tool

      d) Library Service


      Answer. c;

      • Bibliometry is Information Management Tool. It is used to analyze books, articles, 


      68. Which of the following is associated with "Albedo"?

      a) Transmitting power

      b) Absorbing power

      c) Emissive power

      d) Reflecting Power


      Answer. d;

      • The white surface has a high albedo.

      69. With reference to the Deep Carbon Observatory(DCO) which of the following statements is/are correct?

      1. It is a Global Research Programme to outreach the role of carbon on earth.

      2. It conducts field observations of the deep microbial ecosystems.

      Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

      Codes:

      a) 1 Only

      b) 2 only

      c) Both 1 and 2

      d) Neither 1 nor 2


      Answer. c;

      • Deep Carbon Observatory(DCO) is a Global Research Programme that comprises more than 1000 scientists to find out the origins of carbon. It also observes the deep microbial ecosystem.


      70. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

      a) Cartagena Protocol                    Biosafety

      b) Stockholm Convention            Persistent Organic pollution

      c) Montreal Protocol                   Ozone layer

      d) Kyoto Protocol                        Save water


      Answer. d;

      • Kyoto protocol is for the reduction of Greenhouse gases.


      71. Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion A and the other as Reason R.

      Assertion (A): Maximum number of species of butterflies are found in tropical countries.

      Reason (R): Butterflies can not tolerate low temperatures:

      Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

      Codes:

      a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

      b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

      c) A is true but R is false.

      d) A is false but R is true.



      Answer. a;


      72. The amount of energy during the transfer from one tropic level to another in an ecosystem.

      a) Increase

      b) Decreases

      c) Remain constant

      d) May increase or decrease.


      Answer.  b;

      Primary producer(100%) ->  Primary consumer(10 %) -> Secondary consumer (1 %) ->  Tertiary(0.1 %)


      73. Which of the following is associated with biological nitrogen fixation?

      a) Red algae

      b) Brown Algae

      c) Green Algae

      d) Blue-green Algae


      Answer. d;

      • Blue-green Algae is also known as Cyanobacteria which can fix nitrogen from the atmosphere. 

      74. Smog is essentially caused by the atmospheric presence of:

      a) Oxygen and ozone

      b) Ozone and nitrogen

      c) Oxygen and nitrogen

      d) Oxide of nitrogen and sulfur


      Answer. d; Oxide of Nitrogen and Sulfur


      Smog=smoke + fog

      Smok=sulfur dioxide, nitrogen dioxide, carbon diooxide, etc.


      75. The "Global-500" award is given for rare achievement in which of the following fields?

      a) Gene preservation

      b) Environment conservation

      c) Population control

      d) Pollution control


      Answer. b;

      • The "Global-500" award is given for rare achievements in environmental conservation and preservation.
      • Since 2005, UNEP replaced the global-500 award with Champions of the Earth awards.
      • In 2018, PM Modi and the French President got this award.
      • In 2020, Fiji PM Frank Bainimarama 


      76. Blackhole is

      a) A flight recorder in an airplane

      b) a spot on the sun

      c) a place in Antarctica

      d) a collapsed star


      Answer. d.

      a collapsed star or dying star 


      77. The most biodiversity-rich area in India is:

      a) Gangetic plain

      b) Trans Himalayas

      c) the Western Ghats

      d) Central India


      Answer. c;

      There are four biodiversity-rich areas in India;

      • Western Ghats
      • North Eastern Himalayas
      • Western Himalayas
      • Sunda land or Andaman and Nico Bar 

      78. Which of the following is a Nodal Institute for implementation of Sustainable development Goals in India?

      a) Planning Commission

      b) Disinvestment Commission

      c) NITI Aayog

      d) Finance Commission


      Answer. c.

      • NITI Aayog is a Nodal Institute for the implementation of Sustainable development Goals in India.


      79. Arrange the following committees formed for small scale sector in chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

      I. Nayak Committee

      II. Abid Hussain Committee

      III. S.S. Kohli Committee

      IV. Karve Committee

      Codes:

      a) I, II, IV, III

      b) III, II, I, IV

      c) IV, I, II, III

      d) I, II, III, IV


      Answer. c.

      • Karve Committee (1955): The village and small-scale industries.
      • Nayak Committe (1991): examine the problems of small-scale industries.
      • Abid Hussain Committee (1997): Trade policy reform on small-scale industries.
      • S.S. Kohli Committe (2000): Rehabilitation of sick units in the smallscale industries.


      80. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

              List-I                                                                                List-II

          (Programme)                                                                    (Launch Year)

      A. National Programme for Control of Blindness            1. 1975

      B. Integrated Child Development Scheme                        2. 1976

      C. National Leprosy Eradication Programme                    3. 2005

      D. National Rural Health Mission                                       4. 1983

      Codes:

              A    B    C    D

      a)    1    2    3    4

      b)    2    4    1    3

      c)    2    1    4    3

      d)    4    3    2    1


      Answer: c.

      National Programme for Control of Blindness:  1976

      Integrated Child Development Scheme:1975

      National Leprosy Eradication Programme: 2083

      National Rural Health Mission: 2005



      81. Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R)

      Assertion(A): The labor force participation rate falling sharply in recent years for females in India.

      Reason (R): The decline in the labor force participation rate is due to the improved family income and increase in education.

      Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

      Codes:

      a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

      b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

      c) A is true but R is false

      d)A is false but R is true.


      Answer. c;

      The decline in labor force participation is due to a lack of flexibility in jobs with household work.



      82. The dependency ratio in India is declining because:

      a) Population of 0-14 years is relatively high

      b) Population of 60 years and above is relatively high

      c) Population of 15-59 years is relatively high

      d) Population of 0-14 years and 60 years and above together are relatively high


      Answer: c;



      83. Which of the following Sustainable Development Goal(SDG) will target water availability for all and its permanent management up to 2030 in India?

      a)  SDG-6

      b) SDG-7

      c) SDG-8

      d) SDG-9


      Answer. a; 

      SDG-6. Clean water and sanitation.



      84. Who has propounded the concept of "Limit to Growth"?

      a) Club of Rome

      b) UNESCO

      c) Brundtland Commission

      d)Agenda 21


      Answer. a;

      • Club of Rome published "Limit to Growth".


      85. The number of persons who remained unemployed for major parts of the year is called:

      a) Usual status unemployment

      b) Daily status unemployment

      c) Weekly status unemployment

      d) None of the above


      Answer: a;

      •  The number of persons who remained unemployed for major parts of the year is called " usual status unemployment".



      86. With reference to the Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR), which of the statements is/are correct?

      1. Companies Act 2014, introduces mandatory CSR.

      2. Companies covered under this will have to spend at least one percent of their annual net profit in the activities under CSR.

      Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

      a) 1 only

      b) 2 only

      c) Both 1 and 2

      d) Neither 1 nor 2


      Answer. d;

      • Companies Act 2013, brought CSR in which companies should spend a minimum of 2 % of the average profit of three years in social wellness.
      • Annual turnover 1000 crore or more or net worth is 500 crore or more or profit is more than 5 crore. 



      87. Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) is developed by:

      a) Morris D. Morris

      b) UNDP

      c) Mahbub-ul-Haq

      d) None of the above


      Answer. a;

      • Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) is developed by Morris D. Morris in the 1970s that measure the average of three statistics that is literacy rate, infant mortality, and life expectancy rate.


      88. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

                  List-I                                List-II

            (Vegetation Types)            (Region)

      A. Maquis                            1. California

      B. Fynbos                            2. Mediterranean Sea Coastal Region

      C. Chaparrel                        3. South Africa

      D. Matorral                         4. Chile

          Codes:

              A    B    C    D

      a)    2    3    1    4

      b)    4    3    2    1

      c)    3    4    1    2

      d)    4    2    3    1


      Answer. a;

      • Maquis vegetation is found around the mediterranean sea. 
      • Fynbos vegetation is found in southern Africa, especially in South Africa.
      • Chaparral vegetation is in California.
      • Matorral vegetation is in Chile.



      89. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given the lists:

                  List-I                                List-II

          (Country)                               (Capital)

      A. Uzbekistan                        1. Tashkent

      B. Tajikistan                           2. Dushanbe

      C. Kyrgyzstan                        3. Bishkek

      D. Turkmenistan                    4. Ashgabat

          Codes:

              A    B    C    D

      a)    1    2    3    4

      b)    1    2    4    3

      c)    1    3    4    2

      d)    1    4    2    3


      Answer. a;



      90. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

                  List-I                                    List-II

              (Natural Vegetation)            (Region)

      A. Epiphytes                            1. Mediterranean

      B. Acacia                                2. Equatorial

      C. Baobab                               3. Sahara

      D. Cedars                                  4. Savanna

          Codes:

              A    B    C    D

      a)    2    3    4    1

      b)    2    3    1    4

      c)    2    4    3    1

      d)    2    4    1    3


      Answer. c;

      • Cedars: Himalayan and Mediterranear region.
      • Baobab: Sahara desert
      • Acacia: Savanna


      91. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

              (Tribe)                    (Place)

      a)    Pygmy                    Congo basin

      b)    Angami                    Nagaland

      c)     Ainu                         Japan

      d)    Kyrghiz                Sudan


      Answer; d;


      Kyrgyz is from central Asia.



      92. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the hills of Central India located from West to East?

      a) Maikal, Satpura, Mahadeo, and Chhotanagpur

      b) Satpura, Mahadeo, Maikal, and Chhotanagpur

      c) Maikal, Mahadeo, Satpura, and Chhotanagpur

      d) Satpura, Mahadeo, Chhotanagpur, and Maikal


      Answer. b;

      • Satpura range is in Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
      • Mahadeo hills are in Madhya Pradesh.
      • Maikal hills are in Chhatisgarh.
      • Chhotanagpur plateau is in mainly Jharkhand but is stretched in Odisha, West Bengal also.

      93. "Imphal Basin" surrounded by Manipur hills is a fine example of

      a) Lacustrine plain

      b) Loess plain

      c) Glacial plain

      d) Alluvial plain


      Answer. a;

      • Lacustrine Plains are filled by incoming sediments from the surrounded region and Imphal basin and Kashmir valley are example of Lacustrine Plains.
      • Loess plain is of aeolian[ air geomorphic agents] origin, it is found in the desert area.
      • Outwash plains are glacial plains.
      • North Indian plain is an example of Alluvial plain.

      94. Which of the following rivers is famous for its fault valley drainage?

      a) Chambal

      b) Damodar

      c) Gandak

      d) Ramganga


      Answer: b. Damodar.

      • Narmada, Tapi, Damodar, Mahanadi rivers flow from fault.



      95. Which of the following natural regions is known as "Land of Big Games"?

      a) Temperate Grassland

      b) Tropical Monsoon Region

      c) Hot Desert Region

      d) Tropical Savanna Region


      Answer. d. Tropical Savanna region.

      • The Tropical Savanna region, especially in Africa, is famous for the commercial hunting of animals and it is called the "Land of Big Games".


      96. With reference to the Himalayan range which of the statements is/are correct?

      1. The sedimentary rocks of the greater Himalayas were fossil less.

      2. Marine living fossils are found in the sedimentary rocks of the lesser Himalayas.

      3. Remains of human civilization are found in the outer or Shivalik Himalayas.

      Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

      Codes:

      a) 1 and 2 only

      b) 2 and 3 only

      c) 1 and 3 only

      d) 1,2, and 3 only


      Answer. d;

      All of the above is true.


      97. Arrange the following battles in chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

      I. Battle of Sarnal

      II. Battle of Bilgram

      III. Battle of  Dharmat

      IV. Battle of Jajau

      Codes:

      a) II, I, III, IV

      b) II, III, IV, I

      c) III, II, I, IV

      d) III,I, II,IV


      Answer. a; 


      • Battle of Bilgram; 1540; Shershasri defeated the Humayun.
      • Battle of Sarnal. 1572; between Mughals and Hussain Mirza.
      • Battle of Dharmat; 1658; Between Aurangzeb and Dara shikoha over Shahjahan's throne.
      • Battle of Jajau: Succession battle after Aurangzeb.



      98. With reference to Hath Yog, which of the following statements is/are correct?

      1. Hath Yog was practiced by Nathpanthis.

      2. Hath Yog technique was also adopted by the Sufis.

      Select the correct answer.

      a) 1 only

      b) 2 only

      c) Both 1 and 2 only

      d) Neither 1 nor 2


      Answer. c; Both 1 and 2 only.

      Nathpanthis are groud during the medieval time and the belief in God but did not believe in worship in temples.


      99. Which of the following is NOT the characteristics of the Iqta System:

      a) Iqta was a revenue collection system.

      b) Siyasamama was the source of information for the Iqta system

      c) Revenue from Iqta was directly deposited in Sultan's account.

      d) Muqti was supported to maintain troops out of the revenue collected from Iqta.


      Answer. b;

      • Empire lands were divided into different Iqta and it was introduced by Iltutmis.
      • Siyasamama book was written by Nizam al-Mulk . It is book of governance.


      100. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

                  (Books)                        (Writers)

      a)    Tabaqat-i-Nasiri            Minhaj-us-siraj-juzjani

      b)   Tarikh-i-Forozshahi        Shams-i-siraj-Afif

      c)   Tughlaqnama                 Ibn Battuta

      d)   Humayunnama             Gulbadan Begum


      Answer. C;

      Tughlaqnama was written by Amir Khusrau and it is about Tughlaq.


      101. In which year was the "Native Marriage Act" passed:

      a) 1870

      b) 1872

      c) 1874

      d) 1876


      Answer. b. 1872.

      The  "Native Marriage Act" was passed in 1872.


      102. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

              List-I                    List-II

          (Movement)            (Year)

      A. Pabna                    1. 1855-56

      B. Eka                        2. 1873-85

      C. Santhal                   3. 1922

      D. Tana Bhagat           4. 1914

      Codes:

              A    B    C    D

      a)     1    2    4    3

      b)    2    3    1    4

      c)    3    1    4    2

      d)    4    3    2    1


      Answer. b;

      • Santhal Uprising in 1855-56 in Jharkhand states against the oppressive policies of the British.
      • Pabna Peasant uprising against Zamindari system in 1873-85.
      • Tana Bhagat uprising in Bihar in 1914-19.
      • Eka movement is Awadh region against the high rent in 1921-22.



      103. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

              (Event)                                    (Year)

      a)    Indian Navy Act                         1927

      b)    Civil Disobedience Movement       1930

      c)    Second Round table conference        1931

      d)    The communal Award                   1933


      Answer. a.

      Indian Navy Act was enacted in 1957.


      104. Arrange the following events in chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

      I. Appointment of Simon Commission.

      II. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.

      III. Mahatma Gandhi's Dandi March.

      IV. Death of Ferozshah Mehta

      Codes:

      a) IV, II, I, III

      b)I, II, IV, III

      c) II, III, II, I

      d) IV, III, II, I


      Answer.  a;


      • Appointment of Simon Commission. 1927
      • Jallianwala Bagh Massacre: 1919
      • Mahatma Gandhi's Dandi March: 1930
      • Death of Ferozshah Mehta:  1915



      105. The trial of the officers of I.N.A was held in:

      a) Red Fort, Delhi

      b) Gwalior Fort

      c) Amer Fort, Jaipur

      d) Agra Fort


      Answer. a; Red Fort, Delhi.


      106. Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion(A) and the other as Reason(R).

      Assertion (A): The Asiatic Society of Bengal was established in the period of Warren Hastings and he modestly declined the offer of presidentship of that learned body in favor of Sir William Jones.

      Reason(R): Warren hastings was himself a great scholar and an ardent orientalist who used to encourage the study of Sanskrit, Persian, and Arabic.

      Select the correct answer from the codes given below

      Codes:

      a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

      b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.

      c) A is true but R is false.

      d) A is false but R is true.


      Answer. b;


      107. With reference to the National Calendar, which of the statements is/are correct?

      1. The National calendar of India is based on Vikram Era.

      2. The national calendar is adopted from January 26, 1950.

      Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

      a) 1 only

      b) 2 only

      c) Both 1 and 2

      d) Neither 1 nor 2


      Answer. d;

      • The National Calendar of India is based on Saka Era. It was adopted on 22 March 1957. 
      • Saka era was started by Kanishka in 78 CE.
      • Vikram Era 57 BC.



      108. With reference to the Prime Minister's Office(PMO) which one of the statements is/are correct?

      1. It came into existence in 1977.

      2. It is headed by the Cabinet Secretary

      Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

      Codes:

      a) Only 2

      b) Both 1 and 2

      c) Only 1

      d) Neither 1 nor 2


      Answer. c; Only 1

      • Earlier it was PM secretariat office, in 1977 it was renamed as prime Minister's office(PMO). It is headed by Principal Secretary.



      109. The provision of the Sixth Schedule of the Indian constitution is applicable in which of the following states?

      a) Tripura

      b) Sikkim

      c) Nagaland

      d) All of the above


      Answer. a;

      Sixth Schedule: Assam.Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.


      110. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

      a) Habeas corpus            "To have the body of"

      b) Mandamus                "We command"

      c) Prohibition            "To be certified"

      d) Quo-warranto          "By what authority"


      Answer. c;

      Prohibition: Stay order.


      111. The money bill is defined in which Article of the Constitution of India?

      a) Article 109

      b) Article 110

      c) Article 111

      d) Article 112


      Answer. b;

      Article 110 defined the money bill.

      112. In which year was accounting separated from auditing and comptroller and auditor general's task only remained confined to auditing the Government Accounts?

      a) 1975

      b) 1977

      c) 1976

      d) 1981


      Answer. c;

      From 1976 accounting separated from auditing and comptroller and auditor general's task only remained confined to auditing the Government Accounts.


      113. Who opposed planned development in India?

      a) Mahatma Gandhi

      b) Jawaharlala Nehru

      c) Indira Gandhi

      d) Rajiv Gandhi


      Answer. a; Mahatma Gandhi.


      114. Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion(A) and the other as Reason(R).

      Assertion (A): Article 30 of the constitution of India does not define the term "Minorities".

      Reason (R): The constitution recognizes only linguistic and religious minorities.

      Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

      Codes:

      a) Both a and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

      b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

      c) A is true but R is false

      d) A is false but R is true


      Answer. b;

      • The "minorities" terms are not defined anywhere in the constitution and article 30 recognizes only linguistic and religious minorities.


      115. With reference to the federal system in India, which of the statements is/are correct?

      1. States have no right to secede from the Union under the constitution of India.

      2.  Just advocacy of session will have the protection of freedom of expression.

      Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

      a) 1 only

      b) 2 only

      c) Both 1 and 2

      d) Neither 1 nor 2


      Answer. a;

      •  States have no right to secede from the Union under the constitution of India under Article 3.
      • Just advocacy of session is illegal.

      116. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

      a) Public Health and sanitation: State list

      b) Census: Union list

      c) Allocation of seats in the council of states:  Second Schedule

      d) Anti-Defection: Tenth Schedule


      Answer. c;

      Forth schedule: Allocation of seats in the council of states.


      117. How many items are there in the 11th schedule of the Constitution of India?

      a) 22

      b) 24

      c) 29

      d) 32


      Answer. c; 29 subjects or items in the 11th schedule of the Constitution of India.

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