Search Post on this Blog

2017 UPPSC Pre Solved question Papers | Static Questions Only

 1. Which of the following is considered to be the optimum concentration of carbon dioxide for natural balance in the atmosphere.

a) 0.02

b) 0.03

c) 0.04

d) 0.05


Answer. c;

In the atmosphere:

  • Nitrogen: 78.8 %
  • Oxygen: 20.94 %
  • Argon: 0.93 %
  • Carbon dioxide: 0.036 %
  • Neon: 0.002 %


2. Amount of rain depends on:

a) Air Pressure

b) Humidity in the atmosphere

c) Water cycle

d) Temperature


Answer. b;


3. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

a) World Environment Day: 5th June

b) Earth Day: 22 April

c) Anti-tobacco day: 5th May

d) Ozone Layer: 16th September


Answer. c;

Anti-tobacco day: 31 May.


4. Which of the following atmospheric changes takes place due to the greenhouse effect?

a) Increase in carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere.

b) Increase in humidity in the atmosphere

c) Increase in biological population.

d) Increase in wind speed


Answer. a; 

  • An increase in carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere takes place due to the greenhouse effect.


5. "The decade of Sustainable Energy for All" is the initiative of:

a) United Nations

b) India

c) Germany

d) World Bank



Answer. a;

United Nations adopted 2014-24, " The decade of Sustainable Energy for All".


6. Bhopal Gas Tragedy was caused due to the leakage of:

a) Methyl Isocyanate

b) Nitrogen Dioxide

c) Sulphur dioxide

d) Carbon monoxide


Answer. a; Methyl Isocyanate


7. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

    Pollutant    -        Disease Caused

a) Mercury-            Minamata Disease

b) Cadmium    -        Itai Itai Disease

c) Nitrate Ion:         Blue Baby Syndrome

d) Fluoride Ion:         Indigestion


Answer. d;

Indigestion is caused by excess eating. 


8. Which one of the following ecosystems has maximum plant biomass?

a) Tropical deciduous forest

b) Tropical rain forest

c) Temperate deciduous forest

d) Desert shrubs


Answer. b;

Tropical rainforest ecosystems have maximum plant biomass.


9. The government of India enacted the Forest Conservation Act in the year:

a) 1976

b) 1980

c) 1983

d) 1988


Answer. b;

In 1980, the government of India enacted the Forest Conservation act.


10. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

    List-I                        List-II

A. Tropical Forest    1. Sunderbans

B. Conifer Forest     2. Himachal Pradesh

C. Mangroves          3. Rajasthan

D. Deciduous Forest 4. Silent Valley


Codes:

        A    B    C    D

a)    1    2    4    3

b)     2    1    4    3

c)    1    4    2    3

d)    4    2    1    3


Answer. d;


11. Biodiversity has maximum danger from 

a) Destruction of natural habitats and vegetation

b) Improper agricultural operations

c) Climate change

d) Water Pollution


Answer. a; Destruction of natural habitats and vegetation.


12. Which of the following is the primary cause of climate change?

1. Excessive burning of fossil fuels.

2. Exploding numbers of automobiles driven by oil

3. Increasing solar flares

4. Heavy deforestation

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Codes:

a) 1 and 3 only

b) 1,2,and 4 only

c) 1,2,3, and 4 only

d) 1 and 4 only



Answer. b;


13. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

        Nitrogen-fixing agents            Crop

a) Blue-green algae -                    Paddy

b) Rhizobium Leguminisarum:    Pea

c) Azotobacter                               Wheat

d) Azolla                                        Maize


Answer. d.

Azolla is the nitrogen-fixing agent in the paddy field and laos worked as water purfiers.


14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

        List-I                                                                        List-II

A. Curtailment of the power of judicial review.                1. 61st Amendment

B. Abolition of Right to property as a fundamental right    2. 42nd Amendment

C. Lowering the voting age from 21 to 18                         3. 38th Amendment

D. Addition of the word secular in the preamble.            4. 44th Amendment

Codes:

        A    B    C    D

a)    1    2    4    3

b)    2    4    1    3

c)    3    4    1    2

d)    4    1    3    2


Answer.c;

  • 38th Amendment: Curtailment of the power of Judicial review.
  • 44th Amendment: Abolition of right to property as a fundamental right.
  • 61th the amendment: Lowering the voting age from 21 to 18
  • 42nd Amendment: Addition of the word secular in the preamble


15. Of the following political features, which is /are common to India and the USA.

1. Residuary powers vested in the center.

2. Residuary powers vested in the states.

3. President has the power of pocket veto.

4. The upper house has some nominated members.

a) 3 only

b) 3 and 4 only

c) 2,3, and 4 only

d) 1,3, and 4 only


Answer. a; 3 only


16. The concept of "A Union of states in the Indian constitution" has been derived from:

a) The American Declaration of Independence

b) The Australian Constitution

c) The British North American act

d) The swiss constitution


Answer. c;

  • The concept of "A Union of states in the Indian constitution" has been derived from Canadian Constitution or "the British North American act".


17. What is the quorum to constitute a meeting of Lok sabha

a) One-sixth of the total members of the house

b) One-tenth of total members of the house

c) One-fourth of the total members of the house

d) One-third of the total members of the house.


Answer. b; One-tenth of the total members of the house is the quorum to constitute a meeting of Lok sabha.


18. Who among the following was a member of the Sarkaria Commission?

a) V. Shankar

b) K. Hanumanthaaiah

c) Dr. S.R Sen

d) O.V Algesan


Answer. a;

  • V. Shankar was a member of the Sarkaria Commission that was founded in 1983.



19. Match the List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

    List-I(States)        List-II( no of members in Rajyasabha)

A. Gujarat                1. 9

B. Karnataka            2. 11

C. Kerala                   3. 12

D. Odisha                  4. 10

Codes:

        A    B    C    D

a)    1    4    3    2

b)    3    2    4    1

c)    2    3    1    4

d)    1    2    3    4


Answer. c;

UP: 31

Maharashtra: 19

TN: 18

Bihar: 16

Karnataka: 12


20. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): Model code of conduct is to be followed by political parties as soon as an election is announced.

Reason (R): Model code of conduct was enacted by Parliament.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Bothe A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false.

d) A is false but R is true.


Answer. c;

Model code of conduct was enacted by the Election commission.


21. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): The scope of judicial review is limited in India.

Reason (R): Indian constitution has some borrowed items.

Select the right answer from the code given below:

a) Both A and R are correct and R is the right explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is correct but R is wrong

d) A is wrong but R is correct.


Answer. b;

The judicial review is limited to three fields:

  • Fundamental rights protection.
  • Legislative competence between central and state.
  • Fairness in administrative action.


22. Which of the following are enshrined in the third schedule of the Indian Constitution?

1. Form of oath of office for a Minister for the Union

2. Form of oath to be made by the Chief Justice of Supreme Court

3. Form of oath of office for the President of India.

4. Form of oath to be made by a Member of Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1,2,3

b) 2,3,4

c) 1,2,,4

d) 1,2,3,4


Answer. c;

  • Article 60: Oath of office for the president.
  • Third schedule: 
    • Oath of CAG, SC judge and high court judge, MLA oath.


23. Who is generally appointed as a Protem Speaker?

a) The Speaker of the outgoing Loksabha

b) The Dy. Speaker of the outgoing Loksabha

c) One of the senior-most members of the newly elected Loksabha

d) The leader of the opposition party in the outgoing Loksabha


Answer. c;


24. What is meant by a Bullock-Capitalist?

a) Farmers who are poor

b) Farmers who are rich

c) Farmers who have some resources but are not rich

d) Farmers who are big Zamindars


Answer. c

  • Farmers who have some resources but are not rich is called Bullock Capitalist.
  • Profit earned from farming is used in well-being for their own.


25. In which year was Rajya Sabha Constituted for the first time?

a) 1950

b) 1951

c) 1952

d) 1953


Answer. c;

  • The first sitting of the Rajya Sabha was held in 1952.
  • 233 Elected + 12 nominated members.


26. Who among the following is empowered to establish the inter-state council?

a) Parliament

b) President

c) Speaker of Loksabha

d) Prime Minister


Answer. b;

  • Article 263 empowered President to establish the inter-state council.
  • Prime Minister is the chairperson of the Interstate Council.


27. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

a) Policy cut motion: Budget demand be reduced to one rupee.

b) Economy cut Motion: Budget demand be reduced by a specified amount.

c) Token cut Motion:    Budget demand be reduced by rupees one hundred.

d) Vote on Account: Parliamentary sanction of all budgetary demands for grants in a financial year.


Answer. d;

  • Policy cut: reduced to one rupee.
  • Economy cut motion: reduced to the specified amount.
  • Token cut motion; reduced to 100 rupees.
  • Vote on account: withdraw money when the budget for the new financial year is underway.


28. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer by using the codes given below:

Assertion (A): India is a democratic country.

Reason (R): India has a constitution of its own.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false.

d) Both A and R are false.


Answer. b;


29. Which of the following is not a collective privilege of the members of parliament?

a) Freedom of debates and proceedings

b) The right to regulate the internal matters of the parliament.

c) Freedom from attendance as a witness.

d) The privilege of excluding strangers from the house


Answer. c;


30. Consider the following statements and select your answer from the codes given below:

1. The governor does not have the power to appoint the judge of a State High Court.

2. He is not a part of the legislature.

3. He has the power to nominate some members in the Legislative Council.

4. He has no judicial power.

a) 1 and 2 are correct

b) 1 and 3 are correct

c) 2 and 4 are correct

d All are correct


Answer. b;


31. Which of the following does not fall within the purview of Article 21 of the Constitution?

a) Medical aid to injured by a doctor.

b) Sexual Harassment of Women at the workplace.

c) Pollution of the quality of water

d) Capital Punishment


Answer. d;

  • Article: 21: No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except the procedure established by law.


32. Which one of the following is not a feature of a zonal council?

a) It is a constitutional body

b) Five zonal Councils have been set up under the States Reorganization Act, 1956

c) Chandigarh although not a state, is included in Zonal Council.

d) It is an advisory body.


Answer. a;

The zonal council is not a constitutional body but a statutory body as it was established under the States reorganization Act of 1956.

Union Home Minister is a chairperson.

Five Zonal councils:

  • Northern
  • Central
  • Western
  • Eastern
  • Southern
  • Uttar Pradesh is in Central Zonal Council.
  • North Eastern Council is a separate council.


33. Which among the following systems of levying land revenue in Deccan was prevalent during the reign of Akbar?

a) Kankut

b) Number of Ploughs

c) Zabt

d) Ghallabakshi


Answer. c;

  • Zabt: was a land measurement system and based on the Zabt land revenue was collected.
  • Ghallabakshi ( fixed rate) was also prevalent during Akbar's reign.



34. Who among the following foreign travelers visited India during the reign of Jahangir?

a) Father Anthony Monserate

b) Francisco Pelsaert

c) Niccolo Manucci

d) Francois Bernier


Answer. b;

  • Francisco Pelsaert was a Dutch traveler who visited during the reign of Jahangir.


35. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below the statements:

Assertion(A): Generally India had a favorable balance of trade during British rule.

Reason (R): The drain of wealth took the form of unrequited exports.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false.

d) A is false but R is true.


Answer. d.


36. The name "Aghanya" mentioned in many passages of the Rig vega refers to:

a) Priest

b) Women

c) Cows

d) Brahmanas


Answer. c;


37. In which of the following rock-cut caves eleven headed Bodhisattva image is depicted?

a) Ajanta

b) Ellora

c) Kanheri

d) Karle


Answer. c; Kanheri


38. Consider the following statements:

1. The early Chaityagrihas and viharas of Guntuphalli in West Godavari district are rock-cut.

2. The chaityas and Viharas of eastern Deccan are usually rock cut.

of these statements:

a) Only 1 is correct.

b) Only 2 is correct

c) Both 1 and 2 are correct

d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct


Answer. c.

Both 1 and 2 are correct.


39. A resolution passed by Rajyasabha under Article 249 of the constitution empowering Parliament to legislate on a state subject in national interest remains in force for a  period.

a) Not exceeding six months

b) Not exceeding two years

c) Not exceeding one year

d) of unlimited time


Answer. c. Not exceeding one year.


40. Which one of the following is not true about the Barabar hill caves?

a) There are in all four caves on the Barabar Hill

b) Inscriptions of Ashoka are found on the walls of three caves.

c) These inscriptions inform us about the dedication of these caves to the Ajivikas.

d) These inscriptions date back to the 6th century BC.


Answer. d;

It is 3rd century BC.


41. Matsya Mahajanapada of 6th century B.C was located in:

a) Western Uttar Pradesh

b) Rajasthan

c) Bundelkhand

d) Rohilkhand


Answer. b;

Rajasthan. Capital of Matsya's Mahajanpada was Virat Nagar.


42. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists:

        List-I                                         List-II

A. Gandhar Art                               1. Menander

B. Junagarh Rock inscription        2. Patika

C. Milinapanho                             3. Kushanas

D. Taxila inscriptions                    4. Rudradaman I

        A    B    C    D

a)     1    3    4    2

b)    2    4    3    1

c)    3    4    1    2

d)    2    1    3    4


Answer. c;


43. Who was the last ruler of "Jaunpur state"?

a) Mohammed Shah

b) Hussain Shah

c) Mubarak Shah

d) Ibrahim Shah


Answer. B;

  • Hussain Shah was the last ruler of "Jaunpur state".


44. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

a) Hector Munro: Battle of Buxar

b) Lord Hasting: Anglo Nepal War

c) Wellesely: Fourth Anglo Mysore war

d) Lord Cornwallis: Third Anglo Maratha War


Answer. d;

  • Lord Hasting: Third Anglo Maratha War.


45. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

        List-I(Tirthankara)                List-II(Cognizance)

A. Adinatha                                    1. Bull

B. Mallinatha                                   2. Horse

C. Parshvanatha                              3. Snake

D. Sambhavnatha                            4. Water Jar


        A    B    C    D

a)    1    4    3    2

b)    1    3    2    4

c)    2    4    3    1

d)    3    1    4    2


Answer. a;

  • Adinatha: Bull
  • Mallinatha: Water JAr
  • Parshvanatha: Snake


46. In which of the following trials attracted worldwide publicity and drew sympathetic comments from Albert Einstein, H.G Wells, Harold Laski, and Roosevelts in favor of the convicts?

a) INA trial

b) Lahore conspiracy case

c) Meerut conspiracy case

d) None of the above


Answer. c;

  • Meerut Conspiracy case(1929): Indian railway strike.
  • INA trial: 1945.
  • Lahore Conspiracy case: 1915


47. In which of the following years the Jatiya Sarkar was formed in the Midnapur district of Bengal?

a) 1939

b) 1940

c) 1941

d) 1942


Answer. d; 1942.

Jatiya Sarkar was formed in the Midnapur district of Benga in 1942.


48. Who remarked about the East India company that " The Company is an anomaly but it is part of a system where everything is an anomaly?

a) Warren Hastings 

b) G.B. Macaulay

c) Lord Clive

d) Henry Dundas


Answer. b; G.B Macaulay.


49. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

        Revolt                                Year

a) Pabna revolt                            1873

b) Deccan Kisan revolt                1875

c) Sanyasi Revolt                        1894

d) Kol uprising                            1870


Answer. c;

Sanyasi revolt: 1771


50. Which one of the following social reformers strongly opposed the Jury Act of 1826?

a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

c) Mahadev Govind Ranade

d) Rajnarayan Basu



Answer. b.

Raja Ram Mohan Roy strongly opposed the Jury Act of 1826.


51. In which of the following places the Dutch establish their trading centers in India?

a) Nagappattinam, Chinsura, Machilipatanam

b) Sural, Bharuch, Agra

c) Cochin, Ahmedabad, Patna

d) All the above


Answer. d; All the above



52. Who among the following supported the Swaraj Party in Central Legislative Assembly in Pre-independent India?

a) M.A. Jinnah

b) Maulana Abul kalam Azad

c) Dr. Rajendra prasad

d) Jawaharlal Nehru


Answer. a. M.A. Jinnah.

Swaraj Party was formed in 1929 by Motilal Nehru and Chitranjan Das.


53. In which year did Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded "Servants of India Society"?

a) 1902

b) 1903

c) 1904

d) 1905


Answer. d. 1905.

In 1905, Gopal Krishna Gokhale found "Servants of India Society" in Pune.


54. Whose army was defeated by the army of Kakatiya rulers in 1303 at Warangal?

a) Iltutmish

b) Balban

c) Alauddin Khalji

d) Muhammad Tughlaq


Answer. c; Alauddin Khalji.



55. India deepest port is:

a) Kandla

b) Cochin

c) Paradip

d) Marmagoa


Answer. c.


56. Which amongst the following is the largest glacier?

a) Sasaini

b) Gangotri

c) Zemu

d) Siachin


Answer. d. Siachin.

Siachin Glacier is the world's largest mountainous glacier. It is in India.


57. Which of the following states has the lowest percentage of Scheduled Tribes population as a percentage of its total population according to census 2011?

a) Uttar Pradesh

b) Bihar

c) Tamil Nadu

d) Kerala


Answer. a; Uttar Pradesh.

UP: 0 .6 %

TN: 1. 1%

Bihar: 1.3 %


58. Which of the following is not cold ocean currents?

a) the Canaries

b) Humboldt

c) Oyashio

d) Agulhas


Answer. D. Agulhas.

  • Agulhas current is on the eastern side of Africa.
  • Canaries current is cold current and it is near Morrocco.
  • Humboldt current is a cold current and it is on the Peru side.
  • Oyashio is cold current and it is Japan Side.


59. Which of the following is not correctly matched

        Mountain Pass                State

a)    Sipki la                        Himachal Pradesh

b) Bomdila                         Arunachal Pradesh

c) Nathu La                        Meghalaya

d) Zojila                            Jammu & Kashmir


Answer: c;

Nathula: Sikkim.


60. Which of the following cities is known as the oil capital of Europe?

a) Belfast

b) Aberdeen

c) Leeds

d) Liverpool


Answer. b.  Aberdeen.

Aberdeen is known as the oil capital of Europe. It is located in Scotland.


61. Which of the following groups of countries share a border with Israel?

a) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan, Egypt

b) Egypt, Turkey, Jordan, Cyprus

c) Lebanon, Syria, Turkey, Jordan

d) Turkey, Syria, Iraq, Yemen


Answer. a;

Lebanon, Syria, Jordon, and Egypt share a border with Israel.


62. Which one amongst the following is the largest plateau?

a) Coconino

b) Aquarius

c) Colorado

d) Columbia


Answer. c. Colorado.

  • Colorado plateau in the USA is the largest plateau in the world.


63. Arrange the following events in correct chronological sequences using the code given below:

1. Satyagrah against the Rowlett Act

2. Champaran Satyagrah

3. Kheda Peasant Movement

4. Ahmedabad Mill Strike

a) 2,4,3,1

b) 1,2,3,4

c) 2,1,4,3

d) 3,2,4,1


Answer. a.

 Satyagrah against the Rowlett Act: 1919-21

Champaran Satyagrah: 1917

Kheda Peasant Movement: 22 March 1918

Ahmedabad Mill Strike: 14 March 1918


64. Match List I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

        The list I(Waterfall)                List-II( River)

A. Dudhsagar                            1. Ghatprabha

B. Duduma                                2. Machhkund

C. Gokak                                   3. Sharavati

D. Jog                                        4. Mandavi

Codes:

        A    B    C    D

a)    4    2    1    3

b)    4    2    3    1

c)    2    4    1    3

d)    2    3    4    1


Answer. a;

  • Dudhsagar: Mandavi: Goa
  • Duduma: Machhkund: Odisha
  • Gokak: Ghatprabha: Karnataka
  • Jog: Sharavati: Karnataka


65. Which of the following rock systems provides over 90% of the coal of India?

a) Vindhyan system

b) Dharwar system

c) Tertiary system

d) Gondwana system


Answer. d.

  • Gondwana rock system provides over 90 % of the coal of India.


66. Which of the following Iron and Steel plants is not close to raw materials areas?

a) Jamshedpur

b) Rourkela

c) Durgapur

d) Salem


Answer. d. Salem, TN.


67. Red sea is an example of:

a) Volcanic valley

b) Eroded valley

c) Axial trough

d) U-shaped valley


Answer. c.

The red sea is an example of an Axial trough and it is an example of the rift valley.


68. The tropic of cancer passes through which of the following states?

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

1. Gujarat

2. Chhattisgarh

3. Uttar Pradesh

4. Jharkhand

a) 1,2, and 4

b) 1,2,3, and 4

c) 1,3, and 4

d) 2,3,and 4


Answer. a.

  • Tropic cancer passes through: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram.
  • Tropic cancer passes through 17 countries.


69. Identify the correct west to the east sequence of the following Hilly Castes?

a) Khasi-Garo-Naga-Jaintia

b) Naga-Jaintiya-Khasi-Garo

c) Garo-Khasi-Jaintia-Naga

d) Jaintiya-Naga-Garo-Khasi


Answer. c.


70. Which of the following canals is used as an inland waterway in Southern Germany?

a) Volga-Don Canal

b) Sault-Sainte Marie Canal

c) Ludwigs Canal

d) White sea canal


Answer. c.

  • Ludwigs Canal is used as an inland waterway in Southern Germany.


71. Large coffee plantations in Brazil is called

a) Estate

b) Estancias

c) Kalkhozes

d) Fazendas


Answer. d. 

 Large coffee plantations in Brazil are called Fazendas.


72. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

            Country            Capital

a) Guinea Bissau       1. Bissau

b) Taiwan                  2. Taipei

c) Nicaragua            3. Managua

d) Maldives              4. Malabo

  

  Answer.d.

Maldives' Capital: Male.


73.  Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

        The list I(Area)            List-II(Shifting cultivation)    

A. Western Ghats                1. Dahiya

B. Southeast Rajasthan       2. Waltre

C. North-east India            3. Jhum

D. Madhya Pradesh and Chhatisgarh 4. Kumari

Codes:

      A    B    C    D

a)    4    2    3    1

b)    4    3    2    1

c)    3    4    1    2

d)    3    2    1    4


Answer. a;

  • Western Ghats: Kumari
  • SouthEast Rajasthan: Waltre
  • NorthEastern: Jhum
  • MP & Chhattisgarh: Dahiya


74. Match List I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

    List-I(Aluminium Company)        List-II ( Location)

A. Balco                                            1. Hirakud

B. Hindalco                                        2. Korba

C. Indian Aluminium Company        3. Koraput

D. NALCO                                        4. Renukut

Codes:

    A    B    C    D

a) 3    1    4    2

b) 2    4    1    3

c)  3    4    1    2

d)  2    1    4    3


Answer. b;

  • BALCO: Bharat Aluminium Company: Korba, Chhattisgarh.
  • HINDALCO: Renukoot, UP.
  • NALCO: National Aluminum Company, Koraput, Odisha.
  • Indian Aluminium Company, Hirakund.


75. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:

    List-I(City)                List-II(River)

A. Khartoum                1. Zaire

B. Brazzaville               2. Nile

C. Rotterdam                3. Seine

D. Paris                        4. Rhine

Codes:

     A    B    C    D

a)  2    1    4    3

b) 1    2    3    4

c) 4    3    2    1

d) 3    4    1    2


Answer. a;

  • Khartoum: Nile
  • Brazzaville: Zaire
  • Rotterdam: Rhine
  • Paris: Seine


76. The stench due to leakage from the LPG cylinder is because of:

a) Methane

b) Propane

c) Butane

d) Ethyl Mercaptan


Answer. d.

The stench due to leakage from the LPG cylinder is because of Ethyl Mercaptan.

LPG=Propane + Butane


77. Given below are two statements:

Assertion(A): Human body is incapable of digesting cellulose.

Reason (R): Starch degrading enzyme, diastase, is found in the human body.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

 Codes:

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false.

d) A is false but R is true.


Answer. b;


78. Which one of the following organs will not feel any pain on being pricked by a needle?

a) Skin

b) Brain 

c) Heart

d) Eye


Answer. b;


79. In which of the following animal's hooves are not found?

a) Deer

b) Jackal

c) Zebra

d) Horse


Answer. b. 

  • Jackal animals' hooves are not found.


80. The cause of sweet taste in fruits is:

a) Maltose

b) Ribose

c) Lactone

d) Fructose


Answer. d. 

  • The cause of the sweet taste in fruits is Fructose.


81. Which one of the following is a natural polymer?

a) Bakelite

b) Silk

c) Kevlar

d) Lexan


Answer. b.

  • Silk is a natural polymer.


82. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

     Hormone                Function

a) Insulin  -                  regulation of blood glucose

b) Melatonin   -         regulation of sleep

c) Oxytocin    -           release of milk from mammary glands

d) Gastrin    -    regulation of blood pressure.


Answer. d.


Gastrin: enhancing gastric.


83. Urea is:

a) A nitrogen-containing organic compound.

b) A nitrogen-containing inorganic compound

c) A plant hormone

d) An Enderonic compound


Answer. b.

Urea is a nitrogen-containing inorganic compound.


84. The stones present in the gall bladder affect the digestion of:

a) Protein

b) Fat

c) Carbohydrate

d) Nucleic acid


Answer. b. Fat.


85. Which of the following is not a genetic disease?

a) Night blindness

b) Albinism

c) Haemophilia

d) Colour Blindness


Answer. a.

Night blindness.


86. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

    Vitamin                    Role

a) Vitamin B12    - anti anemic factor

b) Vitamin C       - antiscorbutic factor

c) Vitamin D     - anti sterility factor

d) Vitamin K    -antihaemorrhagic factor


Answer. d.

Vitamin D. absorbs calcium.


87. Deficiency of Iodine causes:

a) Night blindness

b) Cancer

c) Goitre

d) Osteoporosis


Answer. c. Goitre.


88. Which one of the following organic acids is abundant in grapes, tamarind, and banana?

a) Acetic acid

b) Citric acid

c) Lactic acid

d) Tartaric acid


Answer. d. Tartaric acid.


89. Which of the following fuels would produce minimum environmental pollution?

a) Hydrogen

b) Diesel

c) Kerosene

d) Coal


Answer. a. Hydrogen fuels would produce minimum environmental pollution.


90. Which of the following has the largest brain in proportion to its body size?

a) Ant

b) Elephant

c) Dolphin

d) Human being


Answer. c;


91. An artificial satellite can be tracked very precisely from the earth by using

a) Doppler effect

b) Radar

c) Sonar

d) Pulsar


Answer. a.

  • An artificial satellite can be tracked very precisely from the earth by using the Doppler effect.


92.  Five bulbs each of 100 watt capacity in a tunnel are illuminated continuously for twenty hours. The consumption of electricity will be:

a) One unit

b) Two units

c) Ten Units

d) Twenty units


Answer. c. Ten units.



93. If an unsaturated sugar solution is prepared by mixing 100 grams of sugar with half a liter of water, which of the following physical quantities will not change?

a) Mass

b) density

c) concentration

d) volume


Answer. d. Volume.


94. A mobile phone charger is:

a) An inverter

b) A UPS

c) A step-up transformer

d) A step-down transformer


Answer. d.

  • A mobile phone charger is a step-down transformer.


95. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

    List-I ( Product)        List-II( Source)

A. Opium                    1. Bark

B. Hing                        2. Root

C. Rubber                    3. Fruit

D. Quinine                  4. Stem

Codes:

        A    B    C    D

a)     1    2    3    4

b)    3    2    4    1

c)    4    2    1    3

d)    2    4    3    1


Answer. b;

  • Opium-Fruit. 
  • Hing-Root. 
  • Rubber-Step. 
  • Quinine-Bark.


96. Television viewers using dish antenna to receive satellite signals do not receive signals during rain because:

1. of the small size of the antenna.

2. rain droplets absorb the energy of radio waves.

3. rain droplets disperse the energy of radio waves from their original direction.

which of the above statements are correct?

a) Only 1

b) only 1 and 2

c) only 2 and 3

d) 1, 2, and 3 only


Answer.d.


97. As per the 2011 Census which one of the following states has recorded a decrease in population?

a) Nagaland

b) Manipur

c) Tripura

d) Sikkim


Answer. a. 

  • Nagaland state has recorded a decrease in population.


98. Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A): According to the World Health Organization(WHO) in 1993, there were 16.5 million deaths due to infectious diseases worldwide.

Reason (R): Urbanization without health planning leads to the spread of such diseases.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false.

d) A is false but R is true.


Answer. b.


99. A cut diamond shines brilliantly due to:

a) Some inherent property

b) total internal refelction

c) its molecular structure

d) absorption of light


Answer. b. 

  • A cut diamond shines brilliantly due to total internal reflection.


100. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists:

        List-I(Industry)            List-II(Centre)

A. Sports goods                1. Moradabad

B. Match Box                    2. Saharanpur

C. Brassware                    3. Meerut

D. Wood Carving            4. Bareilly

Codes:

        A    B    C    D

a)    2    4    1    3

b)    3    4    1    2

c)    1    2    3    4

d)    3    4    2    1


Answer. b;

  • Sports goods-Meerut. 
  • Match Box-Bareilly. 
  • Brassware-Moradabad. 
  • Wood Carving-Saharanpur.


101. Which among the following is not a parameter for estimating the Global Gender Gap Index of the World Economic Forum?

a) Health

b) Education

c) Economy

d) Leisure


Answer. d.

  • Leisure is not a parameter for estimating the Global Gender Gap Index of the world economic forum.


102. Which one of the following is the First National Park established in India?

a) Chandoli National Park

b) Jim Corbett National Park

c) Gir Forest National Park

d) Dudhwa National Park


Answer. b.

Jim Corbett National Park is the First National Park established in India in 1936; earlier it was known as Hailey NP.


103. Which one of the following is the correct order of biological organization ranging from organism to biosphere?

a) Population -> Ecosystem -> Community -> Landscape

b) Landscape  -> Community  -> Ecosystem  -> Population

c) Population --> Community --> Ecosystem --> Landscape

d) Population -> Landscape -> Community  -> Ecosystem


Answer. c.


104. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

    Green House Gas                 -    Source

a) Carbon dioxide            -    Thermal Power Stations

b) Chloro-fluoro carbon    - Automobile

c) Nitrous Oxide               -    Waterlogged Paddy Fields

d) Sulphur dioxide        -    Brick Kilns

 

Answer. c;


105. The size of the respirable suspended particulate matter( R.S.P.M) in the air is:

a) more than 7 microns.

b) more than 6 microns.

c) more than 5 microns.

d) less than 5 microns.


Answer. d.

Less than 5 microns.


106. How many agro-climatic zones are found in Uttar Pradesh?

a) 3

b) 6

c) 9

d) 12


Answer. a; 3



Previous
Next Post »