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Fundamental Rights MCQ [ Source M Laxmikant] | Polity MCQ [ SET-7]

 Fundamental Rights


1. Which part of the Constitution has fundamental rights?

a) Part II

b) Part III

c) Part IV

d) Part IV A


Answer. b, Part III

Part I( List of state and Union Territories)

Part II ( Citizenships)

Part III (Fundamental Rights)

Part IV (DPSP)

Part IV A( Fundamental Duties)


2. Fundamental rights come under which articles?

a) Article 12 to 35

b) Article 13 to 35

c) Article 13 to 36

d) Article 14 to 15


Answer. a. Article 12 to 35.


3. Fundamental rights are derived inspiration from which country‘s constitution?

a) Canada

b) The USA

c) French

d) the UK


Answer. b; the USA( bill of rights)


4. Which part of the constitution is called the “Magna Carta” of India?

a) Part II

b) Part III

c) Part IV

d) Part IV-A


Answer. b; Part III, Fundamental duties are called Magna Carta of India.



5. Which one of the following is not true about Fundamental Rights?

a) Fundamental Rights are justiciable in nature.

b) Fundamental rights in our constitution are more elaborated than USA’s Fundamental rights

c) Fundamental rights are meant for promoting the idea of social and economic democracy.

d) Fundamental rights are essential for the overall development (material, intellectual, moral, and spiritual) of the individuals.


Answer. c; Fundamental rights are meant for promoting the idea of political democracy.

DPSP is for social and economic democracy.


6. Originally, how many fundamental rights had in our constitution?

a) 5

b) 6

c) 7

d) 8


Answer. c; 7

Right to property fundamental right(article 31) was deleted in the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act in 1978.

It is made a legal/constitutional right under Ander 300-A in Part XII.


7. Which of the following are not features of Fundamental Rights?

a) Fundamental Rights are not absolute.

b) Fundamental rights are not qualified in nature.

c) Some Fundamental rights are positive in nature as it provides some privileges to the person.

d) Some Fundamental rights are negative in nature as it places limitations on the authority of the state


Answer. b;

Fundamental rights are not absolute but qualified in nature as the state can impose reasonable restrictions on them.


8. Six rights guaranteed by Article 19 cannot be suspended on the grounds of;

a) War

b) External aggression

c) Armed rebellion

d) None


Answer. c; Armed rebellion.

Article 19 can not be suspended on the ground of Armed rebellion or an internal emergency.

Six rights under Article 19: Speech and expression, Movement, Assembly, association, residence, profession.


9. Definition of state mentioned in which of the following article?

a) Article 11

b) Article 12

c) Article 13

d) Article 14


Answer. b; Article 12.

Article 11; Parliament shall have the power to make laws relating to citizenship.

Article 12; Article 12-definition of state.

Article 13; Law inconsistent or doctrine of judicial review.

Article 14; Equality before the law and equal protection of laws.


10. Which article prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth?

a) Article 13

b) Article 14

c) Article 15

d) Article 16


Answer. Article 15.


11. Equality of opportunities in matters of public employment;

a) Article 13

b) Article 14

c) Article 15

d) Article 16


Answer. d. Article 16;


12. Abolition of titles except military and academic is mentioned in which article?

a) Article 15

b) Article 16

c) Article 17

d) Article 18


Answer. d. Article 18,

Article 17: Abolition of untouchability


13. Protection in respect of conviction for offenses is guaranteed under?

a) Article 19

b) Article 20

c) Article 21

d) Article 22


Answer. B, Article 20. 

Article 19, Protection of six freedom of rights.

Article 20, protection in respect of conviction of offenses.

Article 21, Protection of life and personal liberty.

Article 22, Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.


14. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labor are guaranteed under?

a) Article 22

b) Article 23

c) Article 24

d) Article 25


Answer. b, Article 23;

Article 22: Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.

Article 23; Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labor.

Article 24; Prohibition of employment of children in factories.

Article 25; Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion.


15. Freedom from payment of taxes for the promotion of any religion is guaranteed under?

a) Article 26

b) Article 27

c) Article 28

d) Article 29


Answer. b, Article 27.

Article 26, Freedom to manage religious affairs.

Article 27, Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion.

Article 28, Freedom from attending religious instruction in certain educational institutions.

Article 29, Protection of language, script, and culture of minorities.

Article 30, Right of minorities to establish the educational institute.


16. Which of the following fundamental right is available only to Indian citizens?

a) Article 14

b) Article 15

c) Article 17

d) Article 18


Answer. b, Article 15 is available to only Indian citizens only.

Article 14: Equality before the law.

Article 15: Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.

Article 17: Prohibition of untouchability

Article 18: Abolition of titles except military and academic.


17. Which of the following fundamental right is available both for Indian citizens and foreigners?

a) Article 16

b) Article 19

c) Article 28

d) Article 29


Answer. c, Article 28.


Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, and 30 are available to only Indian Citizens.


Article 15: Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.

Article 16: State shall not discriminate on public opportunities based on religion, race, case, sex, descent, or place of birth.

Article 19: Protection of six rights, speech, and expression, movement, resident, assembly, association, profession.

Article 28: Freedom of attending religious instruction in certain educational institutions.

Article 29: Protection of language, script, and culture of minorities.

Article 30: Right of minorities to establish the educational institute.


18. Where did the concept of “Equality before the law” was originated?

a) Britain

b) The USA

c) Japan

d) France


Answer. a) The concept of Equality before the law is of British origin.


19. Where did the concept of “Equal Protection of law” was originated?

a) Britain

b) The USA

c) Japan

d) France


Answer. b, the USA, Equal protection of the law is USA origin.



20. Which of the following are not features of the concept of “Equality before the law”?

a) It is a positive concept to establish equality.

b) It is an absence of privileges in favor of any person.

c) The equal subjection of ordinary law of the land administered by the ordinary law court.

d) No person is above the law.


Answer. a) the concept of “Equality before the law” is a negative concept for establishing equality.


21. Which of the following are not features of the concept of “equal protection of the law”?

a) It is a negative concept of establishing equality.

b) It provides the equality of treatment under equal circumstances.

c) Law should be the same to the similar applications who are similarly situated

d) The like should be treated alike without any discrimination



Answer A) the concept of “equal protection of the law” is negative sense.


22. What was the ceiling of annual income for the “creamy layer” in 1993?

a) 1 lakh

b) 2.5 lakh

c) 4.5 lakh

d) 6 lakh


Answer. a) 1 Lakh

The following are data:

1 lakh: 1993

2.5 lakh: 2004

4.5 lakh: 2008

6 lakh: 2013


23. Mandal commission was appointed in 1979 by Morarji Desai Government. It is related to?

a) Poverty estimation

b) State reorganization

c) Panchayati Raj institution

d) Investigate the conditions of the socially and educationally backward class


Answer. d) Investigate the conditions of the socially and educationally backward class.


Mandal commission submitted a report in 1980 and identify the 3743 castes as the backward class which comprises 52 % of the total population.

The commission recommended a 27 % reservation for OBC classes.

In 1990, VP Singh's government declared the reservation of 27  government jobs for OBSs.



24. Originally, how many rights were guaranteed under Article 19?

a) 5

b) 6

c) 7

d) 8


Answer. c) 7

Originally Article 19 has 7 rights, but in the 44th Constitutional amendment act 1978, the right to acquire, hold, and dispose of the property was deleted.

Now there are six rights under Article 19:

  • Freedom of speech and expression( freedom of press, commercial advertisement)
  • Freedom of Movement through the county
  • Freedom to form Association like union and co-operative society
  • Right to assembly peacefully 
  • Right to reside and settle in any part of the country.
  • Right to practice any profession


25. Which of the following is not covered under article 20, protection in respect of conviction for offenses?

a) Right to livelihood

b) No ex-post-facto

c) No double jeopardy

d) No self-incrimination


Answer. a) Right to livelihood comes under article 21.

No ex-post-facto law means that: Person should not be convicted of any offense except for a violation of law at the time.

No double jeopardy means that: Person should not be punished twice for the same offense.

No self-incrimination: A person shall not be compelled to witness against himself.


26. Which of the following Supreme Court case takes the broader interpretation of Article 21, Protection of Life and Personal Liberty?

a) Gopalan Case (1950)

b) Keshvananda Bharti Case (1972)

c) Menaka Case (1978)

d) None of the above


Answer. c) Menaka Case (1978)


Gopalan case (1950): Article 21 is available only against arbitrary executive action and not from arbitrary legislative action. It took the narrow interpretation of personal liberty.

Menaka Case(1978): It introduced the American expression of “due process of law”. Personal liberty can be deprived by law provided the law is reasonable, fair, and just.


27. Which of the following Article has provided the right to education is a fundamental right for children aged between 6 to 14;

a) Article 21

b) Article 21 A

c) Article 22

d) Article 25


Answer. b) Article 21 A;

86th Constitutional Amendment 2002, Added/amended Article 21-A, 45, 51-A.



28. Under article 22, what is the maximum preventive detention period in simple circumstances?

a) 2 weeks

b) 1 month

c) 3 months

d) 6 months


Answer. c) 3 months.

However, the advisory board can extend the detention period. The board is comprised of judges from the high court.


29. Which of the following is not prohibited under article 23?

a) Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in a factory, mine, or other hazardous activities.

b) Begar and forced labor

c) Devadasis and slavery

d) Selling and buying of person-like goods.


Answer. a) Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in a factory, mine, or other hazardous activities. It comes under article 24.


30. Which of the following does not come under Article 25;

a) Freedom of Conscience.

b) Right to profess and practice.

c) Right to propagate.

d) Right to religious conversion.


Answer. d) Right to religious conversion.


Article 25: Freedom of conscience and right to profess, practice, and propagate religion.

Freedom of conscience: Inner freedom of an individual with a relationship to God.

Right to profess Declaration of one’s religious beliefs.

Right to practice the performance of religious worship, rituals, or exhibition of beliefs and ideas.

Right to propagate: Transmission of one’s religious beliefs.


31. Under article 26, freedom to manage religious affairs for every religious denomination has been provided. As per the Supreme court, there are three factors for the identification of religious denominations. Which of the following is not the factor of a religious denomination?

a) Should believe in one deity.

b) Collection of individuals who have a system of beliefs that they regard as conducive to their spiritual well-being.

c) Should have common organization.

d) Should have a distinctive name.


Answer.  a) Should believe in one deity.


32. Which of the following comes under minorities' definition in article 30?

a) Religious minority only

b) Linguistic minority only

c) Religious and linguistic minorities only

d) Religious, linguistic, and social minorities only


Answer. c)  Religious and linguistic minorities only


33. Which of the following is the soul of the constitution?

a) Fundamental rights

b) DPSP

c) Article 32

d) Article 50


Answer. c) Article 32.

As per B R Ambedkar, Article 32 is the heart and soul of the constitution.


34. Which of the following has the power to empower any court to issue directions, orders, and writs of all kinds.

a) President

b) Parliament

c) Supreme Court

d) High Court


Answer. b) Parliament


35. Under Article 32, which of the following rights can be enforceable?

a) Fundamental rights only

b) Constitutional rights only

c) Statutory rights only

d) All the above rights


Answer. a) Fundamental rights only


36. In the case of Fundamental rights jurisdiction, which of the following is true regarding Supreme Court Jurisdiction?

a) Supreme Court is an original and exclusive jurisdiction

b) Supreme Court is the original but not exclusive jurisdiction

c) Supreme Court is not original but exclusive jurisdiction

d) Supreme Court is not original as well as exclusive jurisdiction


Answer. b) Supreme Court is an original but not exclusive jurisdiction

The high court also has the same jurisdiction under Article 226.


37. Which of the following is not true regarding the Writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and High Court?

a) Supreme court can issue writs only for the enforcement of Fundamental rights while the High court can issue writs for both Fundamentals rights and ordinary law.

b) the Supreme court can issue writs against a person or government throughout the territory of India while High Court can issue writs against a person or government within its territorial jurisdiction or only outside jurisdiction if the cause of action arises within its territorial jurisdiction.

c) Supreme court may not refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction while the High court may refuse to exercise writs jurisdiction.

d) Supreme court has more power than the high court regarding writs.


Answer. d) Supreme court has more power than the high court regarding writs.

The high court has more power than the Supreme court regarding writs jurisdiction.


38. Match the following:

List-I (writs)

I) Habeas Corpus

II) Mandamus

III) Prohibition

IV) Certiorari

List-II(Meaning)

A) “to be informed”

B) “to forbid”

C) “we command”

D) “to have the body of”

I II III IV

a) A C D B

b) B A D. C

c) D C B A

d) D C A B


Answer. c)


39. Which of the following writ is the bulwark [ defensive wall] of individual liberty against arbitrary detention?

a) Habeas Corpus

b) Mandamus

c) Prohibition

d) Certiorari



Answer. a) Habeas Corpus



40. Habeas corpus can be issued against the?

a) Public authorities only

b) Private Individual only

c) Both

d) None of the above


Answer. c) Both.


41. Mandamus can be used against?

a) Private individual or body

b) When duty is discretionary

c) Against the President 

d) Against the Prime Minister


Answer. d) Against the prime minister as it is a public authority.


42. Which of the following is not true regarding Certiorari Writs?

a) It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal.

b) It is issued on grounds of excess jurisdiction or lack of jurisdiction or error of law.

c) Certiorari can only be issued against judicial or quasi-judicial authorities and not against the administrative authorities.

d) Certiorari is not available against legislative bodies, private individuals, or private bodies.


Answer. c) Certiorari can only be issued against judicial or quasi-judicial authorities and not against the administrative authorities.

In 1991, the Supreme court judgment made available to issue certiorari writs against the administrative bodies.


43. Which of the following is not true regarding “Quo-Warranto” writs?

a) Literal meaning of the writ is “ by what authority or warrant”.

b) It is issued to enquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office.

c) It can be issued to the ministerial office but can not be issued against the private office.

d) It can be sought to be any interested person and not necessarily be an aggrieved person.


Answer. c) It can be issued to the ministerial office but cannot be issued against the private office.

Quo-warranto cannot is issued to the ministerial office or private office.


44. Which of the following article restricts the fundamental rights of the members of the armed forces?

a) Article 31

b) Article 32

c) Article 33

d) Article 34


Answer. Article 33.


45. Which of the following article restricts the fundamental rights while martial law?

a) Article 31

b) Article 32

c) Article 33

d) Article 34


Answer. d) Article 34.


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