Fundamental Rights MCQ [ Source M Laxmikant] | Polity MCQ [ SET-7] ~ Civil Services Self Study

Fundamental Rights

1. Which part of the Constitution has fundamental rights?

a) Part II

b) Part III

c) Part IV

d) Part IV A

Answer. b, Part III

Part I( List of State and Union Territories)

Part II ( Citizenships)

Part III (Fundamental Rights)

Part IV (DPSP)

Part IV A( Fundamental Duties)

2. Fundamental rights come under which articles?

a) Articles 12 to 35

b) Articles 13 to 35

c) Articles 13 to 36

d) Articles 14 to 15

Answer. a. Article 12 to 35.

3. Fundamental rights are derived inspiration from which country‘s constitution?

a) Canada

b) The USA

c) French

d) the UK

Answer. b; the USA( bill of rights)

4. Which part of the constitution is called the “Magna Carta” of India?

a) Part II

b) Part III

c) Part IV

d) Part IV-A

Answer. b; Part III, Fundamental duties are called the Magna Carta of India.

The Magna Carta, also known as the "Great Charter," was a historic document agreed to by King John of England in 1215. It laid down principles that limited the power of the monarchy and established certain rights for English nobles.

However, the Magna Carta is not a constitution in the modern sense. It played a significant role in the development of constitutional law and influenced the concept of limited government and individual rights, which later influenced the creation of modern constitutions.

5. Which one of the following is not true about Fundamental Rights?

a) Fundamental Rights are justiciable in nature.

b) Fundamental rights in our constitution are more elaborated than USA’s Fundamental rights

c) Fundamental rights are meant for promoting the idea of social and economic democracy.

d) Fundamental rights are essential for the overall development (material, intellectual, moral, and spiritual) of individuals.

Answer. c; Fundamental rights are meant for promoting the idea of political democracy.

DPSP is for social and economic democracy.

6. Originally, how many fundamental rights had in our constitution?

a) 5

b) 6

c) 7

d) 8

Answer. c; 7

The right to property fundamental right(article 31) was deleted in the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act in 1978.

It is made a legal/constitutional right under Ander 300-A in Part XII.

7. Which of the following are not features of Fundamental Rights?

a) Fundamental Rights are not absolute.

b) Fundamental rights are not qualified in nature.

c) Some Fundamental rights are positive in nature as it provides some privileges to the person.

d) Some Fundamental rights are negative in nature as it places limitations on the authority of the state

Answer. b;

Fundamental rights are not absolute but qualified in nature as the state can impose reasonable restrictions on them.

8. Six rights guaranteed by Article 19 cannot be suspended on the grounds of;

a) War

b) External aggression

c) Armed rebellion

d) None

Answer. c; Armed rebellion.

Article 19 can not be suspended on the ground of Armed rebellion or an internal emergency.

Six rights under Article 19: Speech and expression, Movement, Assembly, association, residence, profession.

9. Definition of state mentioned in which of the following article?

a) Article 11

b) Article 12

c) Article 13

d) Article 14

Answer. b; Article 12.

Article 11; Parliament shall have the power to make laws relating to citizenship.

Article 12; Article 12-definition of state.

Article 13; Law inconsistent or doctrine of judicial review.

Article 14; Equality before the law and equal protection of laws.

10. Which article prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth?

a) Article 13

b) Article 14

c) Article 15

d) Article 16

Answer. Article 15.

11. Equality of opportunities in matters of public employment;

a) Article 13

b) Article 14

c) Article 15

d) Article 16

Answer. d. Article 16;

12. Abolition of titles except military and academic is mentioned in which article?

a) Article 15

b) Article 16

c) Article 17

d) Article 18

Answer. d. Article 18,

Article 17: Abolition of Untouchability

13. Protection in respect of conviction for offenses is guaranteed under?

a) Article 19

b) Article 20

c) Article 21

d) Article 22

Answer. B, Article 20.

Article 19, Protection of six freedom of rights.

Article 20, protection in respect of conviction of offenses.

Article 21, Protection of life and personal liberty.

Article 22, Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.

Article 20 of the Indian Constitution provides safeguards against retroactive or ex post facto laws, double jeopardy, and self-incrimination. It ensures that no person shall be punished for an act that was not an offense at the time of its commission, that a person cannot be tried and punished twice for the same offense, and that individuals cannot be compelled to be witnesses against themselves. This article aims to protect the rights and dignity of individuals in legal proceedings.

14. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labor are guaranteed under?

a) Article 22

b) Article 23

c) Article 24

d) Article 25

Answer. b, Article 23;

Article 22: Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.

Article 23; Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labor.

Article 24; Prohibition of employment of children in factories.

Article 25; Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion.

Article 23 of the Indian Constitution prohibits human trafficking and forced labor. It states that trafficking in human beings, begar (forced labor), and other similar forms of exploitation are prohibited and any contravention of this provision is an offense punishable in accordance with the law. This article underscores the commitment to ensuring basic human rights and preventing exploitation in various forms.

15. Freedom from payment of taxes for the promotion of any religion is guaranteed under?

a) Article 26

b) Article 27

c) Article 28

d) Article 29

Answer. b, Article 27.

Article 26, Freedom to manage religious affairs.

Article 27, Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion.

Article 28, Freedom from attending religious instruction in certain educational institutions.

Article 29, Protection of language, script, and culture of minorities.

Article 30, Right of minorities to establish the educational institute.

Article 27 of the Indian Constitution deals with the freedom to practice one's religion and the payment of taxes for promoting a particular religion. It states that no person can be compelled to pay taxes for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious institution. This article emphasizes the secular nature of the Indian state and the principle that public funds should not be used to promote or favor any specific religion.

16. Which of the following fundamental right is available only to Indian citizens?

a) Article 14

b) Article 15

c) Article 17

d) Article 18

Answer. b, Article 15 is available to only Indian citizens only.

Article 14: Equality before the law.

Article 15: Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.

Article 17: Prohibition of Untouchability

Article 18: Abolition of titles except military and academic.

17. Which of the following fundamental right is available both for Indian citizens and foreigners?

a) Article 16

b) Article 19

c) Article 28

d) Article 29

Answer. c, Article 28.

Article 28 of the Indian Constitution pertains to the educational rights of religious minorities. It ensures that no religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained by out-of-state funds and that no student shall be compelled to attend any religious instruction or worship that may be conducted in educational institutions that are funded by the government or are recognized by it. This article aims to maintain a secular education system while respecting the rights of religious minorities to their beliefs and practices.

Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, and 30 are available to only Indian Citizens.

Article 15: Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.

Article 16: The state shall not discriminate on public opportunities based on religion, race, case, sex, descent, or place of birth.

Article 19: Protection of six rights, speech, and expression, movement, resident, assembly, association, profession.

Article 28: Freedom of attending religious instruction in certain educational institutions.

Article 29: Protection of language, script, and culture of minorities.

Article 30: Right of minorities to establish the educational institute.

18. Where did the concept of “Equality before the law” was originated?

a) Britain

b) The USA

c) Japan

d) France

Answer. a) The concept of Equality before the law is of British origin.

"Equality before the law" is a fundamental principle of justice that emphasizes that all individuals, regardless of their background, status, or characteristics, should be treated equally by the legal system. It means that every person, regardless of their social, economic, or political standing, is subject to the same laws and regulations.

No one is above the law, and no one should receive special treatment or discrimination by virtue of their position, wealth, or any other factor.

19. Where did the concept of “Equal Protection of law” was originated?

a) Britain

b) The USA

c) Japan

d) France

Answer. b, the USA, Equal protection of the law is USA origin.

"Equal protection of the law" is a legal principle that ensures that all individuals within a jurisdiction are entitled to the same legal rights and protections. It is a key element of many constitutions and legal systems, including the United States Constitution. This principle mandates that government laws and actions must treat all people equally and without discrimination, regardless of their race, gender, religion, nationality, social status, or other characteristics. Essentially, it prevents arbitrary or unfair treatment by requiring that laws apply to everyone in a consistent and just manner.

20. Which of the following are not features of the concept of “Equality before the law”?

a) It is a positive concept to establish equality.

b) It is an absence of privileges in favor of any person.

c) The equal subjection of ordinary law of the land administered by the ordinary law court.

d) No person is above the law.

Answer. a) the concept of “Equality before the law” is a negative concept for establishing equality.

21. Which of the following are not features of the concept of “equal protection of the law”?

a) It is a negative concept of establishing equality.

b) It provides equality of treatment under equal circumstances.

c) Law should be the same to similar applications who are similarly situated

d) The like should be treated alike without any discrimination

Answer A) the concept of “equal protection of the law” is negative sense.

22. What was the ceiling of annual income for the “creamy layer” in 1993?

a) 1 lakh

b) 2.5 lakh

c) 4.5 lakh

d) 6 lakh

Answer. a) 1 Lakh

The following is data:

1 lakh: 1993

2.5 lakh: 2004

4.5 lakh: 2008

6 lakh: 2013

23. Mandal Commission was appointed in 1979 by Morarji Desai Government. It is related to?

a) Poverty estimation

b) State reorganization

c) Panchayati Raj institution

d) Investigate the conditions of the socially and educationally backward class

Answer. d) Investigate the conditions of the socially and educationally backward class.

The Mandal Commission submitted a report in 1980 and identify the 3743 castes as the backward class which comprises 52 % of the total population.

The commission recommended a 27 % reservation for OBC classes.

In 1990, VP Singh's government declared the reservation of 27 government jobs for OBSs.

The Mandal Commission, officially known as the "Second Backward Classes Commission," was established in India in 1979 to examine the social and economic conditions of the socially and educationally backward classes, often referred to as Other Backward Classes (OBCs). The commission was tasked with recommending measures to improve their status and representation in various sectors, including education and employment.

The commission, led by B.P. Mandal, submitted its report in 1980, recommending that a certain percentage of government jobs and educational opportunities be reserved for OBCs to address historical disadvantages they faced. This led to the implementation of reservations for OBCs in government jobs and educational institutions at both the central and state levels. The Mandal Commission's recommendations were met with significant political and social debates, as they stirred discussions about affirmative action, social justice, and equality.

24. Originally, how many rights were guaranteed under Article 19?

a) 5

b) 6

c) 7

d) 8

Answer. c) 7

Originally Article 19 has 7 rights, but in the 44th Constitutional amendment act 1978, the right to acquire, hold, and dispose of property was deleted.

Now there are six rights under Article 19:

Freedom of speech and expression( freedom of press, commercial advertisement)
Freedom of Movement through the county
Freedom to form Associations like unions and cooperative society
Right to assembly peacefully
Right to reside and settle in any part of the country.
Right to practice any profession

25. Which of the following is not covered under Article 20, protection in respect of conviction for offenses?

a) Right to livelihood

b) No ex-post-facto

c) No double jeopardy

d) No self-incrimination

Answer. a) Right to livelihood comes under Article 21.

No ex-post-facto law means that: Person should not be convicted of any offense except for a violation of law at the time.

No double jeopardy means that: Person should not be punished twice for the same offense.

No self-incrimination: A person shall not be compelled to witness against himself.

Article 20 of the Indian Constitution provides certain safeguards and protections to individuals in criminal cases. It consists of three clauses:

Protection in respect of conviction for offenses: This clause prevents a person from being convicted of an offense that was not considered a crime at the time it was committed. It ensures that no one can be penalized for an act that was not illegal when it was done.

Protection against double jeopardy: This clause states that no person can be prosecuted and punished for the same offense more than once. It ensures that individuals are protected from facing repeated trials and punishments for the same act.

Protection against self-incrimination: This clause ensures that an accused person cannot be compelled to be a witness against themselves. In other words, a person cannot be forced to confess or provide self-incriminating evidence that could lead to their conviction.

26. Which of the following Supreme Court case takes the broader interpretation of Article 21, Protection of Life and Personal Liberty?

a) Gopalan Case (1950)

b) Keshvananda Bharti Case (1972)

c) Menaka Case (1978)

d) None of the above

Answer. c) Menaka Case (1978)

Gopalan case (1950): Article 21 is available only against arbitrary executive action and not from arbitrary legislative action. It took the narrow interpretation of personal liberty.

Menaka Case(1978): It introduced the American expression of “due process of law”. Personal liberty can be deprived by law provided the law is reasonable, fair, and just.

The "Menaka Gandhi v. Union of India" case of 1978 is a landmark judgment by the Supreme Court of India that established significant principles regarding the protection of personal liberty and the limits on the government's power to deprive individuals of their rights. The case involved Menaka Gandhi, an environmental activist, and journalist, challenging the cancellation of her passport by the government on the grounds of national security.

The key highlights of the Menaka Gandhi case include:

Expanded Scope of Article 21: The case expanded the interpretation of Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, which deals with the protection of life and personal liberty, to encompass not just physical freedom but also personal dignity and privacy.

Procedural Due Process: The judgment emphasized the importance of procedural safeguards before depriving an individual of their rights. It established that any action that affects the personal liberty of a person must adhere to the principles of natural justice and fair procedure.

Reasonable Procedure and Fairness: The court held that any procedure that impacts a person's rights must be fair, just, and reasonable. It established the principle that arbitrary or unjust actions by the government would be deemed unconstitutional.

27. Which of the following Article has provided the right to education is a fundamental right for children aged between 6 to 14;

a) Article 21

b) Article 21 A

c) Article 22

d) Article 25

Answer. b) Article 21 A;

86th Constitutional Amendment 2002, Added/amended Article 21-A, 45, 51-A.

Article 21 primarily deals with the protection of life and personal liberty. However, Article 21A is a separate provision that was added to the Indian Constitution through the 86th Amendment Act, of 2002. It introduced the Right to Education (RTE) as a fundamental right for children aged 6 to 14 years.

Article 21A states that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children in the specified age group. This amendment aimed to ensure that children receive quality education and that access to education is not denied due to socio-economic reasons. It signifies the commitment of the Indian government to promote education as a fundamental right.

28. Under Article 22, what is the maximum preventive detention period in simple circumstances?

a) 2 weeks

b) 1 month

c) 3 months

d) 6 months

Answer. c) 3 months.

However, the advisory board can extend the detention period. The board is comprised of judges from the high court.

29. Which of the following is not prohibited under Article 23?

a) Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in a factory, mine, or other hazardous activities.

b) Begar and forced labor

c) Devadasis and slavery

d) Selling and buying of person-like goods.

Answer. a) Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in a factory, mine, or other hazardous activities. It comes under Article 24.

30. Which of the following does not come under Article 25;

a) Freedom of Conscience.

b) Right to profess and practice.

c) Right to propagate.

d) Right to religious conversion.

Answer. d) Right to religious conversion.

Article 25: Freedom of conscience and right to profess, practice, and propagate religion.

Freedom of conscience: Inner freedom of an individual with a relationship to God.

Right, to profess the Declaration of one’s religious beliefs.

Right to practice the performance of religious worship, rituals, or exhibition of beliefs and ideas.

Right to propagate: Transmission of one’s religious beliefs.

Article 25 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to freedom of religion. It ensures that all individuals in India have the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate their religion. This article highlights the secular nature of the Indian state and emphasizes the importance of individual choice and freedom in matters of faith.

31. Under Article 26, freedom to manage religious affairs for every religious denomination has been provided. As per the Supreme Court, there are three factors for the identification of religious denominations. Which of the following is not the factor of a religious denomination?

a) Should believe in one deity.

b) Collection of individuals who have a system of beliefs that they regard as conducive to their spiritual well-being.

c) Should have a common organization.

d) Should have a distinctive name.

Answer. a) Should believe in one deity.

Article 26 of the Indian Constitution guarantees certain rights to religious denominations or religious groups in India. It recognizes their autonomy in matters related to religious affairs. Here are the key provisions of Article 26:

Freedom to manage religious affairs: Religious denominations or any section thereof have the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes, manage their own affairs, and own and acquire property.

Freedom to profess and propagate religion: This provision ensures that every religious denomination has the right to manage its own religious affairs and to freely propagate its religion.

Subject to public order, morality, and health: The exercise of these rights under Article 26 is subject to certain limitations, namely public order, morality, and health. This means that while religious denominations have autonomy, their actions should not be detrimental to public order or societal well-being.

32. Which of the following comes under the minorities' definition in Article 30?

a) Religious minorities only

b) Linguistic minority only

c) Religious and linguistic minorities only

d) Religious, linguistic, and social minorities only

Answer. c) Religious and linguistic minorities only

Article 30 of the Indian Constitution grants certain educational rights to religious and linguistic minorities in India. It acknowledges the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. Here are the key points of Article 30:

Right to establish and administer institutions: All minorities, whether based on religion or language, have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. This right includes the right to manage these institutions and to make decisions regarding admissions, fees, and other matters.

Protection of interests: The state shall not discriminate against any educational institution on the grounds that it is under the management of a minority, and it shall not deny any minority the right to establish and administer educational institutions.

Aid to institutions: The state is permitted to provide aid to educational institutions managed by minorities, but such aid shall not discriminate against institutions based on whether they are minority institutions or not.

33. Which of the following is the soul of the Constitution?

a) Fundamental rights

b) DPSP

c) Article 32

d) Article 50

Answer. c) Article 32.

As per B R Ambedkar, Article 32 is the heart and soul of the Constitution.

Article 32 of the Indian Constitution grants individuals the right to move to the Supreme Court of India for the enforcement of their fundamental rights. It is considered a fundamental right in itself and is often referred to as the "Right to Constitutional Remedies."

The following features includes-

Right to move the Supreme Court: Article 32 empowers any person to directly approach the Supreme Court if they believe their fundamental rights have been violated. This allows individuals to seek protection against any infringement by the state or any other authority.

Writs for enforcement: The Supreme Court can issue five types of writs—Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto—to ensure the enforcement of fundamental rights. These writs are essentially court orders directing authorities to take specific actions or refrain from certain actions.

Protection of fundamental rights: Article 32 acts as a safeguard for fundamental rights, allowing citizens to approach the apex court to seek redressal when their rights are violated by the government or any other entity.

34. Which of the following has the power to empower any court to issue directions, orders, and writs of all kinds.

a) President

b) Parliament

c) Supreme Court

d) High Court

Answer. b) Parliament

35. Under Article 32, which of the following rights can be enforceable?

a) Fundamental rights only

b) Constitutional rights only

c) Statutory rights only

d) All the above rights

Answer. a) Fundamental rights only

36. In the case of Fundamental rights jurisdiction, which of the following is true regarding Supreme Court Jurisdiction?

a) Supreme Court is an original and exclusive jurisdiction

b) Supreme Court is the original but not exclusive jurisdiction

c) Supreme Court is not original but has exclusive jurisdiction

d) Supreme Court is not original as well as exclusive jurisdiction

Answer. b) Supreme Court is an original but not exclusive jurisdiction

The high court also has the same jurisdiction under Article 226.

37. Which of the following is not true regarding the Writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and High Court?

a) Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of Fundamental rights while the High Court can issue writs for both Fundamentals rights and ordinary law.

b) the Supreme Court can issue writs against a person or government throughout the territory of India while High Court can issue writs against a person or government within its territorial jurisdiction or only outside jurisdiction if the cause of action arises within its territorial jurisdiction.

c) Supreme Court may not refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction while the High Court may refuse to exercise writs jurisdiction.

d) Supreme Court has more power than the high court regarding writs.

Answer. d) Supreme Court has more power than the high court regarding writs.

The high court has more power than the Supreme Court regarding writs jurisdiction.

38. Match the following:

List-I (writs)

I) Habeas Corpus

II) Mandamus

III) Prohibition

IV) Certiorari

List-II(Meaning)

A) “to be informed”

B) “to forbid”

C) “We command”

D) “to have the body of”

I II III IV

a) A C D B

b) B A D. C

c) D C B A

d) D C A B

Answer. c)

Habeas Corpus: This writ is used to protect a person's right to personal liberty. It directs the custodian of a detained person to produce them in court, along with the reasons for their detention. The court can order the release of the person if the detention is found to be illegal or unjust.

Mandamus: This writ is issued to command a public official, a lower court, or a government authority to perform their legal duty or function. It is used when there is a failure to perform a mandatory duty.

Prohibition: The writ of prohibition is issued by a higher court to prevent a lower court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting beyond the limits prescribed by law.

Certiorari: This writ is issued to quash or set aside the decision of a lower court, tribunal, or quasi-judicial authority if it is found to have acted without jurisdiction or in excess of its jurisdiction.

Quo Warranto: This writ is used to question the legal authority or legitimacy of a person holding a public office, position, or franchise. It challenges their right to hold the office.

39. Which of the following writ is the bulwark [ defensive wall] of individual liberty against arbitrary detention?

a) Habeas Corpus

b) Mandamus

c) Prohibition

d) Certiorari

Answer. a) Habeas Corpus;

40. Habeas corpus can be issued against the?

a) Public authorities only

b) Private Individual only

c) Both

d) None of the above

Answer. c) Both.

41. Mandamus can be used against?

a) Private individual or body

b) When duty is discretionary

c) Against the President

d) Against the Prime Minister

Answer. d) Against the prime minister as it is a public authority.

42. Which of the following is not true regarding Certiorari Writs?

a) It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal.

b) It is issued on grounds of excess jurisdiction or lack of jurisdiction or error of law.

c) Certiorari can only be issued against judicial or quasi-judicial authorities and not against administrative authorities.

d) Certiorari is not available against legislative bodies, private individuals, or private bodies.

Answer. c) Certiorari can only be issued against judicial or quasi-judicial authorities and not against administrative authorities.

In 1991, the Supreme Court judgment was made available to issue certiorari writs against the administrative bodies.

43. Which of the following is not true regarding “Quo-Warranto” writs?

a) Literal meaning of the writ is “ by what authority or warrant”.

b) It is issued to enquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office.

c) It can be issued to the ministerial office but can not be issued against the private office.

d) It can be sought to be any interested person and not necessarily be an aggrieved person.

Answer. c) It can be issued to the ministerial office but cannot be issued against the private office.

Quo-warranto cannot is issued to the ministerial office or private office.

Quo Warranto: This writ is used to question the legal authority or legitimacy of a person holding a public office, position, or franchise. It challenges their right to hold the office.

44. Which of the following article restricts the fundamental rights of the members of the armed forces?

a) Article 31

b) Article 32

c) Article 33

d) Article 34

Answer. Article 33.

Article 33 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to modify or restrict the application of certain fundamental rights in relation to members of the armed forces, paramilitary forces, or intelligence agencies. This provision allows Parliament to enact laws that impose restrictions on the exercise of fundamental rights by these personnel in the interest of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the state, and public order.

45. Which of the following article restricts the fundamental rights while martial law?

a) Article 31

b) Article 32

c) Article 33

d) Article 34

Answer. d) Article 34.

46. Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists: (BEO 2020)

List -I

A. Abolition of Titles

B. Freedom to Manage Religious affairs

C. protection of language of Minorities

D. Right to Education

List-II

1. Article 29

2. Article 21A

3. Article 18

4. Article 26

Codes:

A B C D

a) 3 2 1 4

b) 4 3 2 1

c) 2 3 4 1

d) 3 4 1 2

Answer. d) 3 4 1 2

47. Which one of the following does not fall within the purview of Article 21 of the Constitution? (UPPSC 2017)

a) Medical aid to those injured by a doctor

b) Sexual Harassment of Women in the workplace

c) Pollution of the quality of water

d) Capital punishment

Answer. d) Capital punishment comes under Section 194 of the IPC;

Section 194 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) deals with giving or fabricating false evidence with the intent to procure a conviction of an offense punishable by death, imprisonment for life, or imprisonment for a term exceeding seven years. This section aims to prevent the wrongful conviction of individuals based on false testimony or evidence.

48. Which of the following writs can be issued by a High Court to secure the liberty of the Individual?

a) Mandamus

b) Quo-warranto

c) Habeas Corpus

d) Prohibition

Answer. c) Habeas Corpus

49. Which of the following Fundamental Rights under the constitution is guaranteed only to the citizen of India and not to foreigners living in India? (UPPSC 2015)

a) Equality before the law

b) Freedom of speech and expression

c) Protection of life and personal liberty

d) Free practice of religion

Answer. b) Freedom of speech and expression

50. Consider the following statements: (UPPSC 2016)

Assertion (A): Dr. Ambedkar had described Article 32 of the Constitution as the very soul of it.

Reason (R): Article 32 provides an effective remedy against the violation of Fundamental Rights.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

a) (A) and (R) both are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

b) (A) and (R) both are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

c) (A) is true, but (R) is false

d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer. a) (A) and (R) both are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

51. In India, who is competent to amend the Fundamental Rights of the citizens? (UPPSC 2016)

a) Lok Sabha

b) Rajya Sabha

c) Parliament

d) Supreme Court

Answer. c) Parliament

52. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? (UPPSC 2019)

a) Habeas corpus "To have the body of"

b) Mandamus "We command"

c) Prohibition "To be certified"

d) Quo-warranto "By what authority"

Answer. c) Prohibition "To be certified"

53.

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