Salient Features of the Constitution MCQ [ Source M Laxmikant] | Polity MCQ [ SET-3] ~ Civil Services Self Study

Salient Features of the Constitution MCQ

1. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments is also known as the “Mini-Constitution” of India?

a) 7th Amendment

b) 42nd Amendment

c) 44th Amendment

d) 73rd Amendment

Answer. b;

2. In which year, Kesavananda Bharti's judgment came that emphasized the basic structure of the Constitution and the basic structure of the Constitution can not be amended under Article 368.

a) 1971

b) 1972

c) 1973

d) 1974

Answer. c; 1973;

The Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala case was a landmark judgment by the Supreme Court of India in 1973. It established the "Basic Structure Doctrine," which holds that certain fundamental features of the Constitution cannot be altered by the Parliament.

3. Who described Indian Federal as “Quasi-federal”

a) KC Wheare.

b) Morris Jones

c) Granville Austin

d) Ivor Jennings

Answer. a; KC Wheare;

K.C. Wheare, whose full name is Kenneth Clinton Wheare, was a prominent political scientist and constitutional expert. He was born on March 26, 1907, and passed away on December 6, 1979. Wheare was known for his extensive work in the field of federalism and comparative government.

4. Who described Indian Federalism as a “ Federation with a centralizing tendency”

a) KC Wheare

b) Morris Jones

c) Granville Austin

d) Ivor Jennings

Answer. d. Ivor Jennings.

Ivor Jennings, whose full name is Sir William Ivor Jennings, was a British jurist, constitutional scholar, and academic. He was born on September 16, 1903, and passed away on December 19, 1965. Jennings was known for his significant contributions to the fields of constitutional law and public administration.

5. Who described Indian Federalism as “ Bargaining Federalism”

a) KC Wheare

b) Morris Jones

c) Granville Austin

d) Ivor Jennings

Answer. b; Morris Jones

"Bargaining federalism" refers to a concept within federal systems of government where the central government and individual states or provinces engage in negotiations or bargaining processes to allocate powers, resources, and responsibilities. This type of federalism involves a continuous give-and-take relationship between the different levels of government, often leading to compromises and agreements on various matters.

6. Who described Indian Federalism as “Co-operative Federalism”

a) KC Wheare

b) Morris Jones

c) Granville Austin

d) Ivor Jennings

Answer. c; Granville Austin;

Cooperative federalism is a concept in political science and governance that refers to a system in which the central government and subnational entities, such as states or provinces, work together collaboratively to address issues and implement policies. This approach involves a close partnership and sharing of responsibilities between different levels of government.

7. Which one of the following best describes the Parliament Form of Government?

a) Principle of Cooperation and Co-ordination between the legislative and executive organs.

b) Doctrine of separation of powers between the two organs

c) Written Constitution.

d) Rigid constitution.

Answer. a;

8. Which of the following is not another name for the Parliament System?

a) Westminster

b) Responsible government

c) Cabinet Government

d) American System

Answer. d;

9. How many types of Fundamental rights are provided by Indian Constitution?

a) 5

b) 6

c) 7

d) 9

Answer. b; 6;

There are 6 types of Fundamental rights:

Right to equality (Article 14-18)

Right to freedom of expression (Article 19-22)

Right against Exploitation (Article 23-24)

Right to freedom of Religion (Article 25-28)

Cultural and Educational Rights (Article 29-30)

Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)

10. Which of the following is not a feature of Fundamental rights:

a) It promotes the idea of political democracy.

b) It is justiciable in Nature

c) Fundamental rights are not absolute in Nature.

d) All the fundamental rights can be suspended during National Emergency.

Answer. d;

Except for Article 20 and Article 21, all Fundamental rights can be suspended during a national emergency.

11. According to Dr. B R Ambedkar, Which of the following parts of the Indian Constitution is a “Novel feature” of the Indian Constitution?

a) Preamble

b) Fundamental Rights

c) DPSP

d) Fundamental Duties

Answer. c; Part-IV or DPSP is a “Novel feature” of the Indian Constitution. DPSP is for promoting the ideal of social and economic democracy.

12. Which of the following is not a feature of DPSP?

a) It promotes the idea of social and economic democracy

b) It seeks to establish a “Welfare state”

c) It is non-enforceable by the court and it is non-justiciable in nature

d) It is the duty of the people to apply DPSP principles in making laws

Answer. d.

It is the duty of the state to apply DPSP principles in making laws.

13. In which case, does the Supreme Court emphasizes that the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles?

a) Golaknath Case (1967)

b) Keshava Nada Bharti Case (1973)

c) Maneka Gandhi Case (1978)

d) Minerva Mill Case (1980)

Answer. d; Minerva Mill Case(1980);

Golaknath Case(1967): Parliament can not amend the Fundamental Rights; needs to form a constituent assembly for amending the Fundamental Rights.

Keshvananda Bharti Case(1973); Basic structure of the constitution can not be amended by Parliament; the SC can strike down the amendment passed by Parliament if it violates the basic structure of the constitution.

Maneka Gandhi Case(1978): Right to personal liberty under Article 21; Law must be “just, fair, and reasonable”.

14. Which constitutional Amendment Act reduces the voting rights from 21 years to 18 years;

a) 60th CAA

b) 61st CAA

c) 86th CAA

d) 97th CAA

Answer. b;

61st CAA in 1989( Voting right)

86th CAA in 2002; 21 A article, article 45 insertion regarding Educational Fundamental rights.

97th CAA in 2011; Establishment of Cooperative Societies;

15. Which of the following emergency is not mentioned in the Constitution

a) National Emergency

b) State Emergency

c) Disaster Emergency

d) Financial Emergency

Answer. c;

16. National Emergency is mentioned in which article of the Constitution?

a) Article 352

b) Article 356

c) Article 360

d) Article 398

Answer. a;

17. State emergency is mentioned in which article of the Constitution?

a) Article 352

b) Article 356

c) Article 360

d) Article 398

Answer. b;

National Emergency (Article 352): This is the most comprehensive emergency provision and can be declared when there is a threat to the security of India by war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. It can cover the whole country or a specific part.

State Emergency (Article 356): Also known as President's Rule, this provision allows the President to assume control over the administration of a state if the government in that state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

Financial Emergency (Article 360): This emergency can be declared when the financial stability or credit of India is threatened. The President can issue directions to reduce financial hardships.

18. Financial Emergency is mentioned in which article of the Constitution?

a) Article 352

b) Article 356

c) Article 360

d) Article 398

Answer. c; 360.

Financial Emergency (Article 360): This emergency can be declared when the financial stability or credit of India is threatened. The President can issue directions to reduce financial hardships.

19. Which of the following is not a ground for a declaration of National Emergency?

a) War

b) External Aggression

c) Armed rebellion

d) Internal Aggression

Answer. d;

Financial Emergency (Article 360): This emergency can be declared when the financial stability or credit of India is threatened. The President can issue directions to reduce financial hardships.

20. On which ground state emergency or presidential rule can be declared in the state?

a) Failure of Constitutional machinery only

b) Failure to comply with the directions of the center

c) Both

d) None

Answer. c; Both

21. Forms of Oaths or Affirmations are mentioned in which Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

a) 2nd

b) 3rd

c) 4th

d) 5th

Answer. b; 3rd Schedule

2nd Schedule: Emoluments, allowances, privileges

4th Schedule: Rajya Sabha seat allocation

5th Schedule: relating to the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.

22. Which of the following state is not mentioned under the 6th Schedule for the administration of tribal areas:

a) Assam

b) Nagaland

c) Meghalaya

d) Mizoram

Answer. b; Nagaland;

Four states are: Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.

23. In which schedule, the division of powers between the Union and states are mentioned?

a) 6th

b) 7th

c) 8th

d) 9th

Answer. b; 7th

The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the division of powers and responsibilities between the central government (Union) and the state governments. It is a crucial part of the Constitution that outlines the subjects on which the central and state governments can legislate. The division is categorized into three lists:

Union List (List I): This list contains subjects on which only the central government can make laws. Some examples include defense, foreign affairs, currency, atomic energy, and copyright.

State List (List II): This list contains subjects on which only the state governments can make laws. Some examples include police, public health, agriculture, irrigation, and education.

Concurrent List (List III): This list contains subjects on which both the central and state governments can make laws. If there is a conflict between a central law and a state law on a concurrent subject, the central law prevails. Examples of concurrent subjects are criminal law, marriage and divorce, bankruptcy and insolvency, and economic planning.

8th: 22 scheduled languages

9th schedule: Judicial reviews; 1st Constitutional Amendment Act.

24. Which schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985?

a) 8th

b) 9th

c) 10th

d) 11th

Answer. c; 10th schedule Anti-defection law;

25. By the 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011, the Formation of Cooperative Societies is a fundamental right provided in which article?

a) Article 19

b) Article 20

c) Article 21

d) Article 22

Answer. a; Article 19.;

26. Who said that the Indian Constitution is a” Lawyer’s paradise”

a) Sir Ivor Jennings

b) H K Maheshwari

c) P R Deshmukh

d) Dr. B R Ambedkar

Answer. a; Sir Ivor Jennings

27. The concept of ‘A Union of States in the Indian Constitution” has been derived from : (UPPSC 2017)

a) The American Declaration of Independence

b) The Australian Constitution

c) The British North – American Act

d) The Swiss Constitution

Answer. c) The British North – American Act; A Union of States in the Indian Constitution” has been derived from the Canadian constitution.

From Australian constitution; Concurrent list; free trade and commerce;

From Swiss constitution: DPSP;

Fundamental right from the American constitution;

The British North America Act (now known as the Constitution Act, of 1867) was an important piece of legislation passed by the British Parliament that laid the foundation for the formation of the Dominion of Canada. It established the framework for the Canadian Confederation by uniting three colonies: the Province of Canada (which was divided into Ontario and Quebec), New Brunswick, and Nova Scotia.

28. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer by using the codes given below : (UPPSC 2017)

Assertion [A]: India is a democratic country.

The reason [R]: India has a constitution of its own

Codes :

a) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

b) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

c) [A] is true but [R] is false

d) Both [A] and [R] are false

Answer. b) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

29. Study the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below: (UPPSC 2015)

Assertion(A): India has a written constitution.

Reason (R): The growth of strong regional parties is an indicator of regional aspirations.

Codes:

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false.

d) A is false but R is true.

Answer. b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

30. Which of the following cases outlined the basic structure doctrine of the Indian Constitution. (UPPSC 2015)

a) Gopalan vs. Madras state

b) Golaknath vs. Punjab state

c) Keshava Nand Bharti vs. Kerala State

d) None of these.

Answer. c) Keshava Nand Bharti vs. Kerala State

31. Who said, "India is Quasi federal state"? (UPPSC 2019)

a) Lord Bryce

b) Iver Jennings

c) H.J Lasix

d) K.C Wheare

Answer. d) K.C Wheare

32. Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion(A) and the other as Reason(R):

Assertion (A): Indian federalism is called "Quasi-federal".

Reason(R): India has an independent judiciary with the power of Judicial Review.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Codes:

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false.

d) A is false but R is true.

Answer. b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.

33. Which among the following ( Provision- Part of the Constitution) is not correctly matched? ( UPPSC 2023)

a) Official Language-Part XVII

b) The Union Territories-Part VIII

c) The Scheduled and Tribal Areas- Part X

d) Tribunals - Part XI

Answer. d) Tribunals - Part XI ( It is in XIVA)

34. Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion(A) and the other as Reason(R): ( UPPSC 2020)

Assertion (A): Indian federalism is called "Quasi-federal".

Reason(R): India has an independent judiciary with the power of Judicial Review.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Codes:

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false.

d) A is false but R is true.

Answer. b;

India is "Quasi-federal" because of the following reasons:

Indian states are not sovereign and territories of state can be altered by the union government.

Residuary power in India with the center.

Financially, states are dependent on the center.

35. Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R): ( UPPSC 2020)

Assertion(A): The nature of the Indian Political System embodies the elements of "Continuity and change"

Reason (R): The Indian Political system contains the elements of the following political system such as the modern style, the traditional style, and the saint style.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Codes:

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false.

d) A is false but R is true

Answer. a;

36. Which region of the country conferred special status under Article 371-J of the constitution of India? ( UPPSC 2020)

a) Nagaland

b) Hyderabad and Karnataka

c) Maharashtra and Gujarat

d) Ladakh

Answer. b;

Part XXI of the Indian constitution provides the special status of the state in India.

Here is more about Article 371:

371: Maharashtra and Gujarat

371A: Nagaland

371B: Assam

371C: Manipur

371D-E: Andhra and Telangana

371F: Sikkim

371 G: Mizoram

371H: Arunachal Pradesh

371I: Goa

371J: Karnataka

37. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched? ( UPPSC 2020)

a) Fundamental Duties: Part IV A

b) The States: Part VI

c) Attorney General of India: Part XIII

d) Services under the Union and States: Part XIV

Answer. c:

Part-1: Union and its territory-Article 1 to 4.

Part-2: Citizenship-Article 4 to 11

Part-3: Fundamentals Right- Article-12 to 45

Part-4: Directive Principles of State Policies: Articles 36 to 51

Part-4A: Fundamental Duties: Article 51-A

Part-5: The Union: Articles 52 to 151

Part-6: The states: Article 152 to 237

Part-7: Repealed

Part-8: The Union territories: Articles 239 to 242

Part-9:The Panchayat: 243 to 243O

Part-9A: The Municipalities: 243P to 243ZG

Part-9B: Co-operative societies 243 ZH to 243ZT

Part-22: Short title, date of commencement: 393 to 395

Originally, our constitution had 22 parts and 395 articles, later 3 parts were added.

38. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? ( UPPSC 2020)

a) Interstate Council: Article 263

b) Finance commission: Article 280

c) Administrative Tribunal: Article 323A

d) Union Public Service Commission: Article 315

Answer. d;

Article 315 is related to the Public Service Commission to states.

39. Which article of the Indian Constitution describes the Central Vigilance Commission? ( UPPSC 2020)

a) Article 268

b) Article 280

c) Article 276

d) None of the above

Answer. d;

CVC is not a constitutional body.

Article 268: Duties levied by Union and collected by states.

Article 280: Finance commission.

Article 276: related to tax.

40. Who said, "India is Quasi federal state"? ( UPPSC 2019)

a) Lord Bryce

b) Iver Jennings

c) H.J Lasix

d) K.C Wheare

Answer. d;

K.C. Where India is a quasi-federal state.

Marris Jones said India is "bargaining federalism".

Iver Jennings said," far too large and therefore far too rigid".

41. Which one of the following is correctly matched? ( UPPSC 2008)

a) Citizenship ---- Part III of the constitution

b) Fundamental Rights ---- Part IV of the constitution

c) Fundamental Duties ---- Part V of the constitution

d) The State ---- Part VI of the constitution

Answer. d) The State ---- Part VI of the constitution

42. The Indian Constitution is divided into - ( UPPSC 2008)

a) 16 Parts

b) 22 Parts

c) 24 Parts

d) 25 Parts

Answer. d) 25 parts; originally Indian constitution had 395 articles, 22 parts, and 8 schedules.

43. Study the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below: ( UPPSC 2015)

Assertion(A): India has a written constitution.

Reason (R): The growth of strong regional parties is an indicator of regional aspirations.

Codes:

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false.

d) A is false but R is true.

Answer. b.

44. Of the following political features, which is/are common to India and the USA. ( UPPSC 2017)

1. Residuary powers vested in the center.

2. Residuary powers vested in the states.

3. The president has the power of pocket veto.

4. The upper house has some nominated members.

a) 3 only

b) 3 and 4 only

c) 2, 3, and 4 only

d) 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer. a

45. The concept of ‘A Union of States in the Indian Constitution” has been derived from : ( UPPSC 2017)

a) The American Declaration of Independence

b) The Australian Constitution

c) The British North – American Act

d) The Swiss Constitution

Answer. c) The British North--American Act

46. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer by using the codes given below : ( UPPSC 2017)

Assertion [A]: India is a democratic country.

The reason [R]: India has a constitution of its own

Codes :

a) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct explanation of [A]

b) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct explanation of [A]

c) [A] is true but [R] is false

d) Both [A] and [R] are false

Answer. b

47.

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10 September 2022 at 14:49 ×

Answer of 5 is wrong...

12 November 2022 at 20:04 ×

Answer of 5th question is wrong....it is Morris Jones

22 April 2023 at 14:00 ×

Thanku sir

4 September 2023 at 00:36 ×

thank you so much

26 October 2023 at 16:58 ×

Answer of 45th Question is wrong.
It is british north -American Act.
Union of state in Indian constitution is derived from the british north -American Act (canadian constitution).

8 December 2023 at 17:09 ×

42 was wrong

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